1)

Why does the Torah use the double expression "Ha'alem Ya'alimu"?

1.

Rashi: If they hide their eyes from one thing, they will eventually hide their eyes from other things; If the Sanhedrei Ketanah hide their eyes, ultimately the Sanhedrei Gedolah will hide their eyes, too. 1

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: It implies that the people not only turn a blind eye to the goings-on, but they also prevent the Beis-Din from taking action - a sure sign that Molech has caught on to the people, and explains why Hashem will punish, not only the sinner, but his entire family. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 5.

2

Refer to 20:5:1:1*.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "be'Sito mi'Zar'o la'Molech"

1.

Sanhedrin, 64b: To include even a child who is Pasul. 1


1

For example, if he was conceived through Arayos (who were Chayav Kareis).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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