Why does the Torah see fit to specifically mention women independently?
Refer to Devarim 17:2:4:1*.
Ramban: And by the same token, it mentions "Mechasheifah", in Mishpatim Sh'mos, 22:17.
Like the Ba'alas Ov - with King Sha'ul.
Why does the Torah write "Ish O Ishah" and not "Ish ve'Ishah"?
Sifra: To include an Ov and a Yid'oni Tumtum and Androginus 1 in the Din of Sekilah.
Who are a Safek Ish or Ishah.
How will we reconcile this Pasuk, which prescribes stoning for Ov ve'Yid'oni, with Pasuk 6, which prescribes Kares?
Rashi: The perpetrator is stoned if there are witnesses and warning, Kares if there are not, and a Chatas, if he transgressed be'Shogeg. 1
Rashi: As is the Din by all Chayvei Misos Beis-Din.
What is the connection between this Pasuk and the previous Pesukim?
Seforno: Seeing as the objective of all the current Mitzvos is to sanctify Yisrael, anyone who deviates from that, who turns to Ov and Yid'oni - whose essence abominates the Soul, deserves to be put to death by stoning.
Ba'al ha'Turim and Moshav Zekenim (citing the Sifri): Hashem separated us from the nations to place His Shechinah among us, 1 and we have no need of various types of sorcery to fortell the future like the other nations who have no Navi or anyone of consequence, and who therefore need Ov and Yid'oni.
See Berachos 7a
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Demeihem bam"?
Refer to Shemos, 21:17:2:1 and note.
