1)

When are the Kohanim permitted to eat the Sheyarei ha'Minchah?

1.

Sotah, 15a: The fact that the Torah writes "ve'ha'Noseres min ha'Minchah Yochlu Aharon u'Vanav" after "Vehiktir ha'Kohen ... " (in the previous Pasuk) teaches us that the Kohanim may only eat the Sheyarei ha'Minchah after the Kometz has been placed on the Mizbe'ach

2)

Why does the Torah write "Veha'noseres min ha'Minchah" and not 'Ve'hanoseres Mimenah'?

1.

Menachos, 9b #1: To teach us that if the smallest amount of the Shiyarim goes missing, what remains may not be eaten. 1

2.

Menachos, 9b: #2: To teach us that if the Minchah or the Kometz diminished, or if the Levonah was not placed on the MIzbe'ach, the Kohanim are not permitted to eat the Shiyarim. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 22.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 23.

3)

Why does the Torah mention Aharon here?

1.

Rashi and Sifra #1: To teach us that the Kohanim distribute the Minchah only after the Kohen Gadol has taken his pick (and that also his sons received their portions after him and only by means of distribution ? Sifra)..

2.

Sifra #2: To teach us that any sons of Aharon who are appointed Kohanim Gedolim will have the same Din as him.

4)

What are the ramifications of the fact that the Torah refers to the Sheyarei Minchah as "Kodesh Kodshim"?

1.

Consequently, they must be eaten in the Azarah by male Kohanim only.

5)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "me'Ishei Hashem"?

1.

Rashi: To teach that one may only distribute the portions of the Korban after the part that is burned has been placed on the Mizbe'ach.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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