Seeing as the one who sprinkles the water does not become Tamei, why does the Torah write "u'Mazeh Mei ha'Nidah Yechabeis Begadav"?
What is "ve'ha'Noge'a ... Yitma" referring to?
Rashi (in Pesachim, 17a): It is referring even to Adam ve'Keilim, because the Mei Chatas are considered like an Av ha?Tum?ah 1
Because a Toldah renders Tamei only Ochel u'Mashkeh.
What is the difference between someone who carries the water and someone who touches it?
Rashi: The former is also Metamei the clothes he is wearing; the latter is not.
Why does the Gemara (in Yoma 67b) say that the water is Metaher the Tamei, and Metamei the Tahor? The one whom he sprinkles on still needs Tevilah and Ha'arev Shemesh before he is Tahor, just like one who touches [the water]?
Riva #1: In any case it is a Chidush that Tum'ah comes to the latter from Haza'ah (the Mei Chatas), and Taharah comes to the former through it.
Riva 1 #2: We discuss sprinkling on a Tahor and a Tamei. This is like R. Akiva, who says that if a Tahor receives Haza'ah, he becomes Tamei.
It seems that this is his intent, just there is a printing mistake. (PF)
Why is "Chukah" repeated? (Verse 2 already says so! - Moshav Zekenim)?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that one who sprinkles remains Tahor. What is his source to explain contrary to the simple meaning?
Riva: Because it is a Mitzvah, he is Tahor, just like the one whom he sprinkles on. T///his is difficult. 3
Riva: Even though the Gemara in Yevamos 73a learns from "ha'Tahor" that a T'vul Yom is Kosher for Parah, we learn both of them from the same word.
Moshav Zekenim, citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: We find that "v'Asaf Ish Tahor" means that he was Tahor (but he becomes Tamei now)! We can distinguish; ha'Tahor implies that he remains Tahor.
See question 19:21:152. Also, after sprinkling on a Tamei on day three, he is still totally Tamei! (PF)
