What is the meaning of "li'Sheloshes Yamim"? How will we reconcile it with Pasuk 10, where Hashem said to be prepared "le'Yom ha'Shelishi"?
Rashi #1 (According to Rebbi Yossi in Shabbos, 87a): It means 'at the end of three days', 1 - on the fourth day - Shabbos, the seventh of Sivan, 2 because Moshe added a day of his own accord and the Torah was actually given on the seventh of Sivan.
Rashi #2 (According to the Chachamim of Rebbi Yossi in Shabbos, 87a) and Targum Yonasan (on Pasuk 16): It means 'on the third day' - Shabbos, the sixth of Sivan.
What are the ramifications of "Al Tigshu el Ishah" imply?
Rashi: It means that, during those three days, they were to abstain from intimacy, so that the woman will be able to Tovel on the third day, to be ready to receive the Torah.
Why specifically three days?
Rashi: Because if she were to be intimate during the three days, even if she would Tovel on the third morning, perhaps she would exude Zera after the Tevilah and become Tamei again. 1 Whereas should this happen on the fourth day after intimacy she will not become Tamei, since the Zera will have lost its potency and is not fit to germinate. 2
What is the significance of the five Kolos mentioned in the Parshah - three in the current Pasuk ("Kolos" is plural) and two in Pasuk 19?
B'rachos, 6b: It teaches us that anyone who participates in the Se'udah of a Chasan (in connetion with whom five Kolos are alsso mentioned 1 - Torah Temimah) and makes him happy will mwerit Torah, which was given with five Kolos.
"Kol Sasaon ve'Kol SImchah, Kol Chasan ve'Kol Kalah, Kol Omrim Hodu es Hashem ... " - Yirmiyah, 33:11. See Torah Temimah, note 33, who elaborates.
Moshe decided to separate from his wife due to a Kal va'Chomer, and Hashem agreed with him (Shabbos 87a) - 'B'nei Yisrael spoke with Hashem only once, and they needed to separate from their wives, how much more so I (Moshe) with whom Hashem can speak any time!' But surely it was more appropriate for Yisrael to separate, since Hashem fixed a time when He would definitely speak to them?
Moshav Zekenim: It should have sufficed for Yisrael to abstain for one day. They abstained for three days, due to a Safek that a woman might emit Zera - how must more so Moshe, to whom Hashem might speak whilst he is being intimate.
This explains why the Torah writes that Moshe decided. A Kal va'Chomer is mi'd'Oraisa, but this was not an absolute Kal va'Chomer 1 (PF).
Riva: Due to the Aseres ha'Dibros. (which are more stringent than a S'tam command from Hashem. Alternatively, he means that Hashem had fixed a time for the Aseres ha'Dibros (PF).
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that they abstained from intimacy during the three days, in case the woman would exude the Zera, and become Tamei. But according to the Chachamim of R. Yossi, the Torah was given on the third day from the command, in which case they abstained for only two days?
Moshav Zekenim: If she emits, she can Tovel and she is Tahor for Divrei Torah. 1
Rashi is explaining the Pasuk like R. Yossi, Refer to 19:15:1:1.
A Ba'al Keri does not need to wait until nightfall. Even so, it is correct to abstain for three days - and part of the third day is like the entire day.
Rashi writes that they abstained from intimacy during the three days, in case the woman exudes the Zera, and becomes Tamei. But before the Torah was given, Yisrael were no subject to Tum'ah?
Riva: The Torah was concerned about what will be Tamei after the Torah was given. 1
Riva: Even though the Torah was not concerned about other Teme'im who will be Tamei after Matan Torah - such as a Zav, a Metzora or a Bo'el Nidah, He was concerned about someone who was Tamei through intimacy, since it is the result of lightneadedness, and the Torah was given with fear and awe.
