Why does the Torah write "u'Vesaram (plural) Yih'yeh (singular) lach"?
Zevachim, 37b: ?u?Vesaram? includes a B'chor Ba'al-Mum, which must also be given to the Kohen. 1
This is the only source for that in the Torah. See Torah Temimah, note 76.
What are the ramifications of the juxtaposition of the Z'rikas ha'Dam to the Achilas Basar?
Zevachim, 112b: It teaches us that a Kohen who is not fit to sprinkle the blood is not eligible to receive a portion of Basar. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 77.
What are the ramifications of the Torah's comparison of B'chor Beheimah to Chazeh ve'Shok?
Rashi: It teaches us that it 1 may be eaten by the Kohen's wife, children and Avadim Cana'anim (who are Tahor), for two days and one night ? like the Chazeh ve'Shok of a Shelamim.
See Torah Temimah, note 78. Refer also to 18:18:3.5:1.
How will we reconcile the current Pasuk "ka'Chazeh ha'Tenufah u'che'Shok ha'Terumah (See previous answer) with the Pasuk in Re'ei Devarim, 12:15 "ha'Tamei ve'ha'Tamei Yochlenu", which permits Teme'im to partake of a B'chor?
Bechoros, 32b & 33a: The current Pasuk is discussing a a B'chor Tam, whereas the Pasuk in Re'ei is discussing a B'chor Ba'al-Mum. 1
And we learn a Heter by a Zar via a Kal va'Chomer from a Tamei. See Torah Temimah, note 81.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "l'cha Yih'yeh"?
Rashi: Refer to 18:18:3:1. To teach us that it is not compared to the Chazeh ve'Shok of a Todah - which may be eaten for only one day and one night.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the comparison to Chazeh ve'Shok teaches us that a B'chor may be eaten for two days. But we should know this already from the Pasuk in Re'ei Devarim, 15:20 "Sochalenu? Shanah be'Shanah" implying that it may be eaten in two years - the last day of its first year, and the first day of its second year?
