Why does the Torah insert the word, "Shnei Bane'hah"?
Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that, although Yisro had stipulated that Moshe's first son was to be designated for Avodah Zarah, 1 now that Yisro had decided to convert, he relented, and was bringing both sons to join Moshe to be united as one family. 2
See Targum Yonasan to 4:4.
Refer to 18:4:151:5 . See also Kol Eliyahu on the Pasuk "Es Shnei ha'Me'oros ha'Gedolim" (Bereishis 1:16) that the term "Shnei" always implies that the two are equal.
Why does the Torah mention the birth of Moshe's sons and the reasons for their names here (and not in Parshas Shemos, when their birth took place)?
Ramban: The Torah mentions it here because it wants to highlight the Chesed that Hashem performed with Moshe while he lived in a strange land, and to record how he thanked Hashem for saving him from the sword of Pharaoh and helping him to flee, 1 for having crowned him king of Yisrael, and for drowning Pharaoh and his army in the sea.
Why does it say "Ger Hayisi" in the past tense?
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Yosef Yechi'el: One who does not have children is a Ger (transient resident), but after he has children, it is known that he will not leave them.
Why does it say "Ki Amar" regarding Gershom, but not regarding Eliezer?
Ba'al ha'Turim and Moshav Zekenim (to Pasuk 4), both citing Mechilta (of R. Yishmael): Above (4:24), the angel wanted to kill Moshe for not circumcising Gershom; Yisro had agreed that Moshe marry Tziporah, only on condition that the first son would be for idolatry, 1 and Moshe swore to this effect. "Ki Amar" thus explains that this was Ones - he was a stranger, and was obligated 2 to fulfill Yisro's word.
Moshav Zekenim citing Ri of Orleans: Normally, one gives the name at the Bris. Moshe could not do so himself, due the danger (Hashem sought to kill him). It was Tziporah who gave Eliezer 3 his name. 4
Riva: Moshe was always saying 'Elokei Avi b'Ezri.' Had it written 'Ki Amar,' it would imply that he said so only once. Look
Michtav me'Eliyahu (Vol. 1, p. 155): Surely Moshe would not swear to this! Rather, Yisro had rejected idolatry, but did not yet serve Hashem. Moshe attached himself to him, to try to draw him close to Emes. It is as if he swore to what could result from this, i.e. that his Bechor would serve idolatry.
Why was this Shevu'as Ones? He can choose not to marry her, and not need to stipulate! Perhaps he considered this Ones, for without stipulating, he could not marry anyone. Beis Hillel permit swearing amidst Ones (e.g. to extortionists), and he need not fulfill it (Nedarim 28a). The Mechilta is unlike Beis Shamai, who forbid this. (PF)
Moshav Zekenim: Even though the name was based on what Hashem did for Moshe, Tziporah gave it with Ru'ach ha'Kodesh, and Moshe said that he himself intended to call him Eliezer.
Which son . received his Milah on that occasion? Refer to Shemos 4:24:2 and 4:25:1
