1)

What are the connotations of "Levilti Rum Levavo me'Echav"?

1.

Ramban: It is a La'av against becoming proud, which the Torah inserts with regard to a king 1 - who is even obligated to demand Kavod from the people - and how much more so does it apply to the people, who have no excuse to become proud.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: It is a warning against the king thinking that his subjects are mere mortals, and that he is closer to an angel and that he will rule forever. The Torah that he learns will therefore remind him that he is a mortal just like them and that, like them 'he was formed from dust and will return to dust'.

3.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: This goes well with Chazal, who explains, in Yoma, 22 that Shaul's dynasty was destined not to last long because his Yichus was flawless. 2

1

Since Pride is a Midah which belongs to Hashem alone. See Ramban.

2

And on the other hand, how David ha'Melech's dynasty began with the stain of the relationship of Tamar and Yehudah and how the very Yichus of David himself was initially queried because he came from Rus ha'Mo'aviyah.,

2)

Having just written "Lishmor es Kol Divrei ha'Torah ha'Zos", why does the Torah now add "le'Vilti Sur min ha'Mitzvah"?

1.

Rashi: To include even the relatively light command of a Navi. 1

1

Refer to 17:20:2:1.

3)

"u'le'Vilti Sur min ha'Mitzvah ? ". Which Mitzvah is the Torah referring to?

1.

Rashi: It refers even to the lighter command of a Navi 1 (seeing as the Torah already wrote ? in the previous Pasuk "Lishmor es Kol Divrei ha'Torah ha'Zos" ? Rashi in Shmuel 1, 13:14).

1

Rashi: Like we find by King Sha'ul, who was punished because he failed to wait for Shmuel until the end of the seventh day, as Shmuel had instructed him - See Shmuel 1, 10:8, 13:8, 13 & 14. See also Ba'al ha'Turim DH 'Lema'an Ya'arich ... ' Seifer ha'Ikarim (4:26) ? for this, it was decreed that his descendants will not continue his reign. Hashem despised Sha'ul himself from being king only after he failed to fully destroy Amalek.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the words "Hu u'Vanav be'Kerev Yisrael"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that if the king's son 1 is fit to rule then he takes precedence 2 over everybody else. 3

2.

Horayos, 11b: See note on answer #1. And "be'Kerev Yisrael" teaches us that in the event of Machlokes among the sons - then even the son who inherits the throne is anointed with the anointing oil. 4

1

See Torh Temimah, note 101.

2

Which is why when a son inherits his father's throne, he is not anointed with the anointing oil. See Torah Temimah, note 100, who elaborates. Seifer ha'Ikarim (4:26): For certain sins, the king will continue to reign, but his descendants will not - like we find by Sha'ul (Refer to 17:20:2:1*) and by Shlomoh (whose descendants ruled only over two tribes).

3

Rashi (in Rosh Hashanah, 2b): Because Malchus is an inheritance. Refer also to 17:14:2:2.

4

Which explains why they anointed Shlomoh - because of Adoniyahu, Yo'ash - because of Asalyah, and Yeho'achaz because of Yehoyakim (Horayos, Ibid).

5)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "be'Kerev Yisrael"?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that not only does the son of a king take precdence to succeed his father but that so do the sons of all communal leaders. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 101.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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