Bearing in mind that "Se'irim" implies two ('Mi'ut Rabim, Shenayim') why does the Torah write "Sh'nei Se'irei Izim"?
Yoma, 62b: To teach us that, initially, 1 the goats must be equal - in appearance, size and value. 2
Refer to 26:10:0.1:1.
They must also be purchased simultaneously. See Torah Temimah, note 21. Chulin, 11a: And the fact that we not suspect that one of them is a T'reifah, teaches us the principle of 'Holchin Achar ha'Rov' - since most goats are not T'reifos.
Why is the Chatas of the Tzibur merely a goat and that of the Kohen Gadol, a bull, as opposed to the Par Hele'am Davar of the Kohen Gadol is the same as that of the Tzibur?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, bearing in mind that the Chatas of Yom Kipur came to atone for Tum'as Mikdash ve'Kodashav, it was Aharon and the Kohanim - who were included in the Chatas - who were bound to have sinned more frequently than the non-Kohanim, who never entered the Kodesh, and rarely, the Azarah. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah.
Since one of the goats goes to Azazel, why does the Torah write Sh'nei Se'irei Izim le'Chatas"?
Ramban: The Kohen Gadol declares both Se'irim a Chatas, and Hashem then orders him to send it la'Azazel from Himself. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, bearing in mind that the entire Avodah was performed with the Sa'ir la'Hashem - except for Semichah and Viduy, and Semichah and Viduy were performed over the Sa'ir la'Azazel, but no other Avodah, 2 it transpires that the two Se'eirim were two parts of a whole, and that they combined to form a Chatas.
Ramban: Because, if Yisrael would send it to Azazel in their name, it would be considered Avodah Zarah.
See Oznayim la'Torah here and in Pasuk 10 DH 'Lechaper Alav'. Refer also to 16:5:3.1:1.
Seeing as the Sa'ir la'Azazel was a Chatas, why was it not Shechted in the Azarah and itss blood berought sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach?
Seforno: Due to the intensity of its Tum'ah (since it carried all the sins of Yisrael) - and forr the same reason it rendered Tamei the person who took it out. 1
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Ayil Echad le'Olah"?
Yoma, 70b: To teach us that the ram is synonymous with the ram of the Musaf - that there was no second one. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 24.
According to Rebbi (Yuma 70b), this is the ram of Musaf Yom Kipur (Bamidbar 29:8). Why is it mentioned, and the other Musafim are not?
Kol Eliyahu, Divrei Eliyahu: Vayikra Rabah (21:7) says that Aharon was permitted to enter the Kodesh ha'Kodoshim even not on Yom Kipur, with the Korbanos mentioned here. He needed a ram from the Tzibur, but not the other Musafim.
Rashi implies that he washes his hands and feet from the Kiyor. It says in Yuma (43b) that on Yom Kipur, he washes from a gold Kiton (flask)!
Moshav Zekenim (4) #1: Kiton is a Kiyor. It is called Kiton for it is smaller than the Kiyor [that was used the entire year - PF].
Moshav Zekenim (4) #2: Water of the Kiyor is not sanctified until it is put in the Kiton.
Here we do not discuss on Yom Kipur. (PF; refer to 16:32:1:2.)
