1)

What are "Korbanam" and "Chatasam", respectively, referring to?

1.

Rashi and Ramban: "Korbanam" refers to the bull of the Olah and "Chatasam", to the goat of the Chatas.

2)

Why does the Torah add "ve'Hein Hevi'u es Korbanam ... "?

1.

Ramban #1: To stress that, in spite of the severity of the sin, since it was performed be'Shogeg and they brought their Olah and Chatas, they deserve an atonement.

2.

Ramban #2 (citing R. Yashiyah 1 in the Sifri): If one tribe sinned following a ruling of its Beis-Din, and other tribes followed suite, they are all subject to bring an Olah and a Chatas.

3.

Ramban #3 (According to Kabalah): The Torah inserts both "la'Hashhem" and "Lifnei Hashem", the former, corresponds to the Midas Rachamim; the latter, 2 to Midas ha'Din 3 - which Chazal sometimes describe as 'Hu u'Beis-Dino'.


1

Although according to R. Yonasan, it is only that specific tribe that is Chayav the Olah.

2

Ramban: Which is synonymous with "Al Panai".

3

Ramban: We do not find this dual expression by any other sin-offering (See R. Chavel's footnotes).

3)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ve?Chatasam ? al "Shig'gasam"?

1.

Zevachim, 41a: "Chatasam" refers to the Se'irei Avodas-Kochavim, and "Shig'gasam", to the Par He'elam Davar shel Tzibur, 1 (to which the Torah is comparing it), 2 and Chatasam al Shiggasam? implies that regarding the burning of the Emurim, this Chatas is equivalent to all other regular Chata?os.


2

Regarding the burning of the Emurim. See Torah Temimah, note 69.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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