Why does the Torah juxtapose the Parshah of Avodah Zarah to that of Chalah?
Midrash Rabah: To teach us that someone who keeps the Mitzvah of Chalah is considered as if he negated Avodah Zarah. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because on the one hand, many people served Avodah Zarah in order to attain their basic needs - See Oznayim la'Torah - whereas on the other, someone who separates Chalah from his dough on the understnding that this brings B'rachah to his household, is negating Avodah Zarah and acknowledging that it is not the source of abundance.
Seeing as the Torah is discussing Avodah Zarah, why does it write "ve'Lo Sa'asu ... ", implying that it is referring to someone who fails to perform a Mitzvas Asei?
Ramban #1: It implies that he did not do what the Torah commanded but the opposite.
Ramban #2: The Torah sometimes refers to prohibitions as 'Mitzvos'. 1
Ramban: Like we find in Vayikra, 4:2.
What is "Eis Kol ha'Mitzvos ha'Eileh" referring to?
Rashi, Ramban #1, Seforno and Rashbam: It is referring to the sin of Avodah Zarah, which is akin to transgressing the entire Torah. 1
Ramban #2: It is referring to a Mumar le'Chol ha'Torah Kulah (an apostate who left the fold - be'Shogeg 2 to join another nation, thereby contravening the whole Torah) 3 .
See Torah Temimah, note 58 and Rashbam.
Ramban: In the case of a Yachid - a Tinok she'Nishba (who was captured as a baby and did not know better); In the case of a Tzibur, either where the people believed that the era of Torah had come to an end or, as the Sifri explains (in connection with the episode in Yechezkel, 20:1) - because they said 'Hashem gave us Torah and Mitzvos in order to receive reward; We are willing to forego the reward'; or because they simply forgot the Torah - as happened in the time of Yeravam and in the time of Ezra.
Ramban: Which explains why the Torah does not write "Achas mi'Kol Mitzvos Hashem" - as it does by other Korbanos that come to atone for sin (See Vayikra, 4:14). (In any event, it is clear that, even though the Pasuk is referring to the above case, the Korbanos come to atone for Avodah-Zarah and not for the other Mitzvos. As the Ramban himself concludes.
Why does the Torah refer to Avodah-Zarah as "Kol ha'Mitzvos ... "?
Rashi: Because, just as someone who contravenes all the Mitzvos throws off the yoke, annuls the B'ris and misconstrues the Torah 1 , so too does someone who worships Avodah-Zarah.
Ramban and Seforno: Because someone who worships Avodah-Zarah has not kept any of the Mitzvos that Hashem commanded Moshe, 2 seeing as when one acknowledges another god, he declares null and void everything that Hashem commanded, both Mitzvos Asei and Mitzvos Lo Sa'aseh. 3
Yerushalmi Nedarrim, 3:9: To teach us that Avodah Zarah is is worse than all the other sins combined. 4
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Seforno: Since He preceded them all with "Anochi Hashem Elokecha" (which is therefore the basis of all the Mitzvos).
Ramban: And any Mitzvos that he keeps are meaningless ? since they are not the Mitzvos that Hashem commanded Moshe ? See Seforno.
See Torah Temoimah, note 59.
Why does the Torah single out Avodah-Zarah from all the other Mitzvos for which the Tzibur is Chayav a Korban be'Shogeg?
Rashi: Because, even though Avodah-Zarah was included in all the Mitzvos, for which the Tzibur bring a bull as a Chatas, 1 the Torah now takes it out of that category, and obligates them to bring a bull as an Olah and a goat as a Chatas.
See Vayikra, 4:14.
Why does the Torah add "Asher Diber Hashem el Moshe"?
Rashi: Because "Anochi" and "Lo Yih'yeh l'cha" (which form the basis of Avodah-Zarah) are the two Mitzvos that we heard from Hashem directly. 1
Rashi: As the Pasuk indicates in Tehilim, 62:12.
