1)

What are the implications of ?me?Reishis Arisoseichem??

1.

Yerushalmi Chalah, 1:5: It implies that Terumah ? which is called ?Reisheis? ? is subject to Terumah.

2)

Why does the Torah add the prefix 'Mem' in the word "me'Reishis Arisoseichem"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that [also] from one's first dough, one separates only part to give to the Kohen, and not the entire dough. 1

2.

Panim Yafos: To teach us that the obligation begins immediately from when one begins kneading. 2

3.

Yerushalmi Chalah, 1:6 To teach us that if someone declares that the entire dough that he is kneading should be Chalah, his declaration is invalid - "me'Reishis", 've'Lo Kol Reishis'. 3


1

See answer #3.

2

This clashes with the Sifri. Refer to 15:20:5:4.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 54.

3)

What are the ramifications of the word "Titnu la'Hashem Terumah"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that, even though Chalah has no Shi'ur, one should give the Kohen dough that is sufficient to be considered a 'Nesinah'. 1


1

Sifri: Based on this D'rashah, the Chachamim fixed the Shi'ur for a private individual at one twenty-fourth, and for a baker and a woman who intends to sell her wares in the market at one forty-eighth. See Torah Temimah citing the Sifri and notes 56 & 57, were he concludes that this D?rashah is an Asmachta, and that m in ha?Torah, Nesinah means even a Kolshe?hu, like Terumah.

4)

Why does the Torah write here "Titnu la'Hashem Terumah" and not "Kodesh la'Hashem", like it did at the end of Bechukosai, 27:30, in connection with Ma'aser Sheini"?

1.

Kidushin, 53a: To teach us that, as opposed to Ma'aser Sheini, if someone betroths a woman with Terumah, the Kidushin is valid. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 55.

5)

Rashi learns from the 'Mem' of "me'Reishis" that also from one's first dough one separates only part. But the same applies to Terumah, even though the Torah does not write "me'Reishis"?

1.

Riva (citing R"M of Kutzi): Perhaps we learn Terumah from Chalah.

2.

Chulin 136b: That is because the word "Reishis" implies that a remainder must be discernable. 1


1

If so, the Torah could have written 'Reishis' (without the 'Mem') also regarding Chalah, and we would say the same thing (PF). Tosfos ha'Rosh (in Chulin, 136b). The Gemara does not learn from "Reishis" itself, but it learns Terumah from Chalah, which is also called 'Reishis'.

6)

Why does the Torah need to write both "Reishis Arisoseichem" and "me'Reishis Arisoseichem"?

1.

Moshav Zekenim (in Devarim 26:2): Had the Torah only written "Reishis Arisoseichem", we would have thought that one is obligated to declare one's entire first dough Chalah. And had it only written "me'Reishis Arisoseichem", we would have thought that one only separates Chalah from the first dough. "Reishis Arisoseichem" teaches that one may separate part of each dough.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

7)

Rashi writes that, even though Chalah has no Shi'ur, one should give the Kohen enough to be called 'Nesinah'. But the Torah writes "ve'Nasan" regarding Terumah, yet one grain of wheat exempts the entire batch?

1.

Riva (citing R. Tam of Orleans): Any amount is called 'Nesinah'; this is why a Get is Kosher even if it is written on Isur Hana'ah (which is not worth anything). In fact, we ought to know Nesinah regarding Chalah, since it is called 'Terumah'. Nevertheless, the Torah writes it in order to teach us that Chalah does require a minimal Shi'ur.

2.

Mizrachi: mi'd'Oraisa, also Chalah has no Shi'ur, and the D'rashah is an Asmachta. 1

3.

Gur Aryeh: There is a Mitzvah to give enough to be called 'Nesinah'. If one designates any amount, it takes effect. 2

4.

Panim Yafos: Even though separating any amount permits the dough, one fulfills the Mitzvah of giving [to the Kohen] only if he gives a Shi'ur. And the same applies to Terumah.


1

Mizrachi: As a matter of fact, also Terumah has a Shi'ur mi'de'Rabbanan. See also Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.

2

We knew this before? It does not however, resolve the contradiction between Chalah and Terumah?

8)

Rashi writes that "me'Reishis" teaches us that also from one's first dough one separates only a part. Why can't we learn from "Reishis" that a remainder must be discernable, like we Darshen with regard to Terumah (in Chulin 136b)?

1.

Moshav Zekenim (in Devarim 26:2): Regarding Terumah, "Reishis" is superfluous, since it is obvious that one does not give one's entire crop to the Kohen, because if one would, from what would one them separate Ma'asros? Regarding Chalah however, "Reishis" is necessary, since we may otherwise have thought that one is obligated to declare the entire first dough Chalah.

2.

Tosfos ha'Rosh (in Chulin, 136b): The Gemara does not learn Terumah from "Reishis", but Terumah from Chalah, which is also called 'Reishis'.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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