What are the implications of "Salachti ki'Devarecha"?
Rashi: It implies 'I forgive them due to what you said (in Pasuk 16) - "In case people say that I am unable to bring them to the land" '. 1
Ramban, Rashbam and Moshav Zekenim #1: Since Moshe only requested "Erech Apayim" and "Rav Chesed", and not a complete pardon, 2 Hashem granted his request.
Seforno: Hashem was saying that He had already forgiven them in the way that Moshe requested. 3
Moshav Zekenim #2: Hashem meant that, following Moshe's Tefilah, He would not strike them with a plague, only everyone would die in his time and it would be their children who would inherit Eretz Yisrael.
B'rachos, 32a: It means that Hashem pardoned Yisrael because of what Moshe said in Pasuk 16 "mi'Bilti Yecholes Hashem ... ".
Hashem condeded (Kevayachol) that Moshe was right and that they would indeed make that claim (B'rachos, 32a).
Refer to 14:23:1:1 & 2. Ramban (in Pasuk 17) and Moshav Zekenim (in Pasuk 18): In any event, it is because Moshe did not Daven for a complete unconditional pardon that in Seifer Devarim, when he recalls the Tefilah that he Davened on behalf of Yisrael following the Chet ha'Eigel, he makes no mention of the Tefilah that he Davened here following the Chet ha'Meraglim - because the people would have taken him to task for not asking for a complete forgiveness.
Hence "Salachti" is in the past tense.
Rashi, in Sh'mos 33:11, writes that on Yom Kipur, Hashem was totally appeased, and said "Salachti ki'Devarecha," and that, due to this, Yom Kipur was fixed as a day of forgiveness for all generations. But Hashem said it here and not after the Eigel, and here, it was not on Yom Kipur?
Refer to Sh'mos 33:11:152:1-4.
