Why does the Torah write "Ve'asah ha'Kohen es ha'Chatas", and not 'Vehikriv'?
Zevachim, 4a: To teach the Kohen to perform every Avodah-over and above the Shechitah 1 - connected with it in the name of a Chatas.
See Torah Temimah, note 85;
Why does the Torah insert "ve'Chiper" in the previous Pasuk with regard to the Asham, repeat it here regarding the Chatas, and again in the following Pasuk regarding the Olah and the Minchah?
Ramban (in Pasuk 18): The Asham atones for the sin that brought on the Tzara'as, 1 the Chatas for his probably having questioned Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu for punishing him; whereas the Olah and Minchah purify him from his sin and allow him to return to his wife. 2
Hadar Zekenim (15), Moshav Zekenim (53): V'Chiper [regarding Nega'im and Yoledes] is an expression of cleansing. The Tzara'as already atoned for his Aveirah, and Korban Yoledes is not for sin.
Sifra: The Torah writes "Vachiper" here, in spite of the fact that itiserts it at the end of Pasuk 20, to teach us that the main Kaparah is brought about by the Chatas. 3
Why does the Torah write "Vechiper al ha'Mitaher",and not 'alav'?
Zevachim,8b: To teach the Kohen that if he performs the Avodah of a Chatas in the name of anyone other than the owner, the Korban is Pasul.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "mi'Tum'aso"?
Sifra: In order to extrapolate "mi'Tum'aso", 've'Lo mi'Zovo'
