Why here, does the Torah mention "Pishtim" before "Tzemer" whereas in all other places, it mentions Tzemer first?
Ha'amek Davar: This is the source for the ruling (according to R. Yehudah) that the Shesi and Areiv of flax becomes subject to Tum'as Nega'im before that of wool 1
Oznayim la'Torah: It follows on from the previous Pasuk which ended with "O be'Veged Pishtim".
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "O be'Or"?
Shabbos, 28a: To incorporate in the Din of Nig'ei Begadim a. the skin of Tamei animals and b. where the Nega only appeared on the garment after it reached the hands of the Kohen. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 205.
What is the difference between "Or" and "Meleches Or"?
Rashi: "Or" is plain leather; "Meleches Or", leather that has been fashioned into a utensil.
Shabbos, 28a: "Meleches Or" incorporates in Nig'ei Begadim where the owner cut a little piece from each of the listed materials and fashioned them into a garment. 1
Sifra: "Meleches Or" precludes from the Din of Nig'ei Begadim 'Matzah' - leather that has not been treated with salt and flour of gall-nuts, 2 and 'Cheifah' - leather that has been treateed with salt and flour, but not with gall-nuts.
Why are garments of wool, linen and leather exclusively, subject to Nig'ei Begadim?
Oznayim la'Torah (on Pasuk 47): Because at the beginning of creation, following the sin of Adam and Chavah - which 'incidently' involved Lashon ha'Ra - Hashem made them leather tunics, and Kayin and Hevel brought flax-seeds and sheep with their wool, respectively, as a Korban. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.