Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Im Nekeivah Seileid"?
Nidah, 40a: To incorporate a Tumtum and an Androginus in the Din of Tum'as Leidah. 1
Since we would otherwise have thought that it requires Zachar Vaday and Nekeivah Vada'is (Torah Temimah).
Why does the Torah insert the(otherwise superfluous) word "Ve?Tam?h Shev?ayim ke'Nidasah"?
Nidah, 36b: In order to Darshen "ke'Nidasah", 've'Lo ke'Zivasah' - If the pains of childbirth cause her to see blood during the days of Nidus, she is Tamei, but not if it happens during the eleven days of Zivus. 1
Nidah, 38b: And from the word "Teishev", we learn that the same concession regarding the Dam Zivus extends to the sixty-six days of Taharah for a girl - See Torah Temimah, note 41,who explains how that is possible.
What are the implications of the word ?Teisheiv al-D?mei Taharah??
Refer to 12:5:2:1 and note.
Why does the Torah say "bi'Demei [Taharah]" regarding a boy, and "Al Demei" regarding a girl?
Moshav Zekenim citing the Rosh: She always has thirty-three days of Dam Tohar after a boy, but sometimes she does not have sixty-six Y'mei Tohar after a girl, e.g. if she miscarried during these days. 1
There is no Tum'as Leidah for a miscarriage within Y'mei Tohar of a boy, for within 40 days it is not considered a fetus. (PF)
What do we learn from the 'Vav' of "ve'Im Nekeivah Seiled"?
Moshav Zekenim: It includes where she gives birth to a Tumtum or Androginus (a Safek Zachar or Nekeivah), where she must be stringent to observe the days of Tum'ah for a Yoledes Nekeivah, and the days of Tohar for a male (which now end on day forty, even though she was forbidden to her husband until the fifteenth).
