How will we reconcile this Pasuk, which writes that the Pesach must be eaten "in one house," with the Pasuk earlier, which writes "Al ha'Batim (plural) Asher Yochelu Oso Bahem" (12:7) - implying that one may move from one house to another?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: The Pasuk means that one must eat the Pesach (not in one house, 1 but rather) in one group (i.e., that one is not permitted to join another group 2 while eating it) 3 - even in the same house. 4
Pesachim 86a: The Pesach may be divided into two and eaten in two locations, but one is forbidden to move from one location to another. 5
Note that 'house' in this context is synonymous with a room. See Torah Temimah, notes 240 and 241.
Pesachim 85b: As implied by the word "[Lo Sotzi Min ha'Bayis...] Chutzah." Maharal - For the meaning behind this Halacha, see 12:3:6.3:1.
Though a group is permitted to move from one location to another.
Targum Yonasan: Nor may one send a piece of one's Pesach as a gift to somebody in another group. See Sifsei Chachamim.
See Torah Temimah, note 227.
Seeing as the Pasuk concludes, "v'Etzem Lo Sishberu Bo" (addressing 'you' in the plural), why does it write "Lo Sotzi" (in the singular - see Torah Temimah, note 238)?
Having inserted the word "Chutzah," why does the Torah need to write "Min ha'Bayis"?
Yerushalmi Pesachim, 7:13: To teach us that someone who carries two k'Zeisim of Pesach from one group to another transgresses two Lavin - "Lo Sotzi min ha'Bayis" and "Lo Sotzi Chutzah." 1
See Torah Temimah, note 240.
What are the implications of the word "Chutzah"?
Refer to 12:46:1:1 and its notes.
Pesachim 85b (according to the Rambam): It implies that one must leave a space between one group and another. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 241, who elaborates and cites Rashi, who has a different text in the Gemara.
What is the scope of the prohibition against breaking the bone of a Korban Pesach?
Rashi: It is confined to a bone that contains a k'Zayis of meat or of marrow.
Targum Yonasan: One may not break a bone in order to eat the marrow inside it.
Rashbam: One may not break a bone in the way that someone who eats in haste tends to do. 1
Even though in Egypt, they ate the Korban Pesach in haste, as we learned earlier (in Pasuk 12:11), future Pesachim are eaten in the way that aristocrats eat, leaning to the left, and unhurriedly. Refer to 12:43:4:1. (Nonetheless, the prohibition to break any bones surely applied to Pesach Mitzrayim as well, despite the command to eat in haste -CS.)
What is the reason for the prohibition of breaking a bone of the Korban Pesach while eating it?
Rashbam: So that it will not be eaten in haste. Refer to 12:46:2:3 and its note.
Oznayim la'Torah: Based on the prohibition of eating the Korban Pesach as Achilah Gasah (on a full stomach), it is because the Pesach must be eaten with dignity, for the sake of the Pesach, and not in a gluttonous manner. 1
Maharal: This law reflects the meaning of the Korban Pesach. Refer to 12:3:6.3:1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Which is the underlying reason behind the obligation to eat it 'Al ha'Sova' - in the form of a dessert. Also refer to 12:46:151:1.
What is the word "[v'Etzem Lo Sishberu] Bo" coming to exclude?
Pesachim 84a: It excludes a Tamei Pesach from this Lav. 1
Mechilta: It excludes other Kodshim from the Lav. 2
What will be the Din if someone breaks a bone of the Pesach, at a point where there is no marrow?
Pesachim 84a: He is nevertheless Chayav (seeing as either way, he is breaking it in order to obtain the marrow from within). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 243 - and note 242 for more details.
What if someone breaks a bone of the Pesach before the time to eat it has arrived?
Yerushalmi Pesachim, 7:2: He is Chayav - since the Torah does not differentiate. 1
And the same applies if he breaks it after the time to eat it has elapsed. See Torah Temimah, note 247.
If one wants to eat the marrow inside the bone of a Korban Pesach, why does the Aseh of eating the Pesach not override the Lo Sa'aseh of breaking a bone?
Moshav Zekenim #1: Since the Lav was repeated regarding Pesach Sheini, it forbids whether or not there is a k'Zayis of meat (Pesachim 85a). 1
Moshav Zekenim #2 (R. Yeshayah): An Aseh overcomes a Lo Sa'aseh only if they are simultaneous. Here one fulfills the Aseh only after transgressing the Lav, therefore it is not Docheh.
Moshav Zekenim #3 (Zevachim 97b): An Aseh does not override a Lo Sa'aseh in the Beis-Hamikdash. 2
Moshav Zekenim: But this should be an exclusion after an exclusion, which comes to include?
Presumably, the Gemara means a Lo Sa'aseh regarding Kodshim, since one does not eat the Pesach in the Beis Hamikdash itself. The question is problematic to begin with, however, seeing as the Lav of breaking the bone precedes the Aseh, it is a 'Lav she'Kodmo Aseh,' and the principle of 'Aseh Docheh Lo Sa'aseh' does not apply.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'B'Vayis Echad Ye'achel' (lit., it shall be eaten in one house) - [I.e.,] in one Chaburah (group) ... Yet perhaps it means one house in the literal sense? ... [Because another] verse teaches, '... the houses (pl.) in which they will eat it' (12:7)." But we could also explain the opposite way - that "one house" is literal, whereas splitting into two groups is permitted?
Gur Aryeh: Rashi gives us the opinion of Rebbi Shimon (Pesachim 86a-86b), who interprets Pesukim based on pronunciation (Yesh Em la'Mikra). Had our verse been coming to prohibit a person to eat in two locations, it would have to be read 'b'Vayis Echad Yochal' - in one house he shall eat. Because it is read "Ye'achel" [in the passive], it means the Korban Pesach must be eaten in one group - and not divided among two. 1
See Rashi to Pesachim (loc. cit). Whereas Rebbi Yehudah learns Pesukim using Yesh Em la'Masores, and he comes to the opposite conclusion - that a Korban Pesach may be eaten in two groups, but not in two locations.
Rashi writes: "You shall break none of its bones - that are fit for consumption." How is this derived from the Pasuk?
Gur Aryeh: The verse began with the rules of the meat's consumption - "It must be eaten in one Bayis." Hence, it is only concerning the edible portions of the animal, that breaking a bone is prohibited.
Rashi writes that it is Asur to break a bone of a Pesach, only if it contains a k'Zayis of meat (or marrow). What is the reason for this?
Moshav Zekenim: Because the Pesach should be eaten when satiated (Al ha'Sova). Consequently, if one breaks a bone that contains a k'Zayis of meat in order to eat the marrow, he is demonstrating that he is still hungry, and he transgresses. 1 But if there is not a k'Zayis of meat on the bone, he is breaking it in order to fulfil the Mitzvah of eating the Korban Pesach. 2
Rosh: The Pasuk is referring to someone whose portion of the Pesach is a bone, with the meat on it and inside it. If he needs to break it in order to obtain a k'Zayis of meat and perform the Mitzvah, it is permitted; 3 otherwise it is not. 4
Moshav Zekenim: Shouldn't it be permitted nonetheless, due to 'Aseh Docheh Lo Sa'aseh'? Refer to 12:46:5.
It should depend on whether or not he already ate a k'Zayis! Perhaps we judge now, when he breaks it, whether or not it is evident that he breaks it due to hunger. (PF)
Is this because of Aseh Docheh Lo Sa'aseh? The rule shouldn't apply here; see 12:46:5! Perhaps the Lav was not said in such a case. (PF).
Rosh: The Gemara, however, does not seem to learn like this.
