What are the implications of the phrase "ha'Basar Odenu bein Shineihem"?
Seforno: It implies that they died before reaching the stage that they began to loathe it.
Hadar Zekenim: It was after it sufficed for everyone, in case people say that Hashem killed them because He could not supply enough for them.
Oznayim la'Torah: It negated the notion that they died from overeating - and on the other hand, they continued dying after one,day, two days ... five ten or twenty days - so that nobody could claim that the meat was poisonous - There was no doubting the fact that it was a Divine punishment.
Chulin, 105a: It implies that meat that is stuck between the teeth is still called meat. Consequently, the prohibition of eating milk after meat extends to meat that is stuck between one's teeth.
What are the connotations of "Terem Yikareis"?
Rashi #1, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means that they had not yet finished eating it ? .
Rashi #2: It means that they had not yet ground the meat with their teeth ? .
Why does the Torah repeatly insert the word "ha'Am" throughout the Parshah?
What are the implications of "Terem Yikareis"?
Rashi: It implies that they died before they finished (eating - Gur Aryeh, digesting - Sifsei Chachamim). 1
Rashi #2: It implies that they died before they even cut the meat with their teeth.
Seforno: It means before the thirty-day limit that Hashem initially set. 2
Whom did Hashem smite at this juncture?
Ramban and Seforno: The first to express their desires and those who cried with them 1 - Refer to 11:20:3:3.
Da'as Zekenim (citing Midrash Tehilim): He killed the fat, healthy people 2 - because they asked inappropriately, from 'a full stomach', whereras the lean ones asked in order to become healthier.
Seforno: Because"Ve'achlu Chodesh Yamim" applies only to those who complained "Lamah Zeh Yatzanu mi'Mitzrayim", but not to those who merely desired meat.
As the Pasuk wites in Tehilim 78:31 "va'Yaharog be'Mishmaneihem".
What are the implications of "Makah Rabah Me'od"?
R. Bachye #1: It implies that they died via a plague of Dever.
Why did Moshe not Daven for them like he did in Tav'eirah - in Pasuk #2?
R. Bachye: Perhaps it was due to his embarrassment a. at the magnitude of Yisrael's sin - at their lack of Emunah, and at having added to their initial sin of grumbling because they left Egypt and did not take a lesson from those who were burnt in Tav'eirah; b. at himself having complained at the Shechinah, when he declared "Lamah Hare'oscha be'Avdecha?"
