What are the implications of the word "v'Yardu"?
Oznayim la'Torah: It is an expression of degradation. They would degrade themselves by going to Moshe to plead with him to leave Egypt, and by even prostrating themselves before him.
Seeing as it would be Pharaoh himself who went to Moshe to plead with him to take the people out (12:31), why did Moshe say "v'Yardu Chol Avadecha... "?
Rashi and Rashbam: Moshe was showing Pharaoh the respect that one is obligated to show a king - even one that is as wicked as Pharaoh - by not giving him the degrading news directly. 1
What is the significance of "Kol Avadecha"?
Oznayim la'Torah: Incorporating both those servants who hitherto "feared the word of Hashem" and those who up until now "took no notice of His words" (9:20-21).
What are the implications of "v'Acharei-Chein, Eitzei"?
Oznayim la'Torah: It implies that it is only after receiving permission from Pharaoh to leave that Yisrael would leave Egypt - just as they received permission to come down to Egypt. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: As the Torah stated in Parshas Vayigash, "Al Pi Pharaoh" (Bereishis 45:21).
Why did Moshe use the words "v'Acharei-Chein" (which implies some time later), and not 'v'Achar-Kein' (which implies immediately)?
Seforno: Because Moshe would refuse to leave immediately (in the middle of the night), rather only in the morning.
Why was Moshe furious with Pharaoh?
Rashi: Because Pharaoh had ordered him never to see his face again (10:28). 1
Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Eliyahu): The Pasuk means that Pharaoh was furious with Moshe. 2
Gur Aryeh: Why explain this way? Moshe had just given Pharaoh the final ultimatum of Makas Bechoros; why would that have made him angry! Rather, it was because of what Pharaoh had said prior to this.
Refer to 11:8:151:3 and note.
What were the ramifications of Moshe's burning anger?
Oznayim la'Torah: For a number of reasons, it is impossible to understand this literally. What Chazal presumably mean is that Moshe 'slapped Pharaoh in the face' by leaving the palace without giving him Shalom.
The Gemara explains there that, whenever the term 'Charon Af' appears in the Torah, there are ramifications.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Asher b'Raglecha' (lit. 'at your feet') - [I.e., the nation] that follows your directives and your goings." Why explain this way?
Gur Aryeh: If it meant that the people should leave on foot, it should say 'b'Ragleihem.'
Rashi writes: "And then, I shall leave! - ... with the entire people, from your land." Why does Rashi need to add this?
Gur Aryeh: It should not be confused with the end of the Pasuk, to mean 'then I shall leave Pharaoh's presence.' Moshe left immediately, not after Makas Bechoros.
Rashi writes that Moshe showed honor to the king, and did not say that Pharaoh himself would come to plead with him to take out Yisrael. But the Gemara says in Zevachim 102a, that Moshe slapped Pharaoh's face?
Moshav Zekenim #1: The Gemara means that Moshe placed his hand near Pharaoh's face, and told him that he deserved to be slapped, 'I warned you, you asked me to pray for you, and I did all this for you - and you throw me out!' 1
Moshav Zekenim #2: The Gemara is the opinion of Resh Lakish, who maintains that Moshe was not commanded to show honor to Pharaoh. 2
Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Eliyahu): It was Pharaoh who slapped Moshe. 3
Shem mi'Shmuel: Bearing in mind that man was created in the image of Hashem, 4 Moshe slapped Pharaoh so that the Tzelem Elokim (the Shechinah) should leave him, 5 and he would be unable to rule over Yisrael.
Moshav Zekenim citing Sefer ha'Gan: This is wrong, bearing in mind what the Gemara said, that every "Charon Af" has an after-effect.
He must explain the Gemara to understand "va'Yeitzei me'Im Pharaoh ba'Chari Af" to mean that Pharaoh was angry! (PF).
Shem mi'Shmuel: Which is why Chazal said that 'Someone who slaps a Yisrael, it is as if he slaps the Shechinah.' The Seforno explains that man has Bechirah, because he was created b'Tzelem Elokim.
Shem mi'Shmuel: And "Vayeitzei me'Im Pharaoh" refers to the Shechinah.
