What was the purpose of this vision?
Malbim: It was to calm him. Koresh had commanded to begin building the Beis ha'Mikdash, and retracted due to what haters of Yehudah wrote. Daniel mourned greatly over this.
Why does it say "Davar Niglah"?
Malbim: This vision was not general matters ? all the details were revealed to him.
What do we learn from "v'Tzava Gadol"?
Rav Sadya Gaon #1: Legions of angels and a great army 1 .
Rav Sadya Gaon #2: It is great desire, like Tzvi. Ibn Ezra ? this is like "Di Havah Tzavei" (5:19).
Rashi: It will come after a long time.
Ibn Ezra citing R. Moshe ben Bil'am: Tzava is like "Tzava le'Enosh Alei Aretz" (Iyov 7:1, i.e. a fixed time, like Ibn Ezra explained there).
It seems that Ibn Ezra explains that it is as if it says Davar v'Tzava Gadol Niglah l'Daniel, but there is a printing mistake. He compares this to "va'Yar Yisrael Es Mitzrayim Mes Al Sefas ha'Yam" ? the land swallowed them! Rather, it means va'Yar Yisrael Al Sefas ha'Yam Es Mitzrayim Mes. (PF)
Why does it say "u'Vin Es ha'Davar"?
Rashi: The vision was revealed to me in order to understand the matter (Malbim ? the previous visions. Davar is what he heard in Nevu'ah , and Mar'eh is visions that he saw.)
What is the meaning of "u'Vinah Lo ba'Mar'eh"?
Rashi: To make him understand it in a verse. Vinah is not a noun, rather, a verb, like Haven. This is why the accent is on the Veis. The Hei is extra, like "Binah Hagigi."
Ibn Ezra #1: Vinah is a noun. The accent is moved back to the Veis because the accent on the coming word is on the first [and only] syllable, like "Asah Li Es ha'Chayil ha'Zeh." (The accent is on the Ayin in Asah for the same reason.)
Ibn Ezra #2: Both u'Vin and u'Vinah are commands.
