What did Moshe mean when he said "Hein Lo Huva es Damah el ha'Kodesh Penimah"?
Rashi: He insinuated that had the blood been taken into the Heichal, they would have been justified in burning it. 1
As the Torah wrote in Tzav, 6:23. Refer also to 10:18:151:1 & 2.
Why did Moshe insert the word "el ha'Kodesh Penimah"?
Zevachim, 82a: Because "Kodesh" S'tam refers to the Kodesh Kodshim, but now that Moshe added "Penimah", his question pertains to the Heichal as well. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 50. This is dificult however, because then, when the Torah continues "Achol Tochlu osah ba'Kodesh" it means that they should have eaten it in the Heichal, which is not the case.
What did Moshe mean when he said "Achol Tochlu osah Ka'Asher Tziveisi"?
Rashi: He meant that, in spite of the fact that they were On'nim, they should have eaten it as he had commanded them (in Pasuk 19) with regard to the Minchah.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "Hein Lo Huva es Damah ?" implying that, had the blood been taken inside, they would have had to burn it. Then why do we need also the Pasuk in Tzav 6:23 "ve'Chol Chatas Asher Yuva es Damah? Tisaref"?
Moshav Zekenim #1: The Pasuk in Tzav is referring to Parim ha'Nisrafim and Se'irim ha'Nisrafim (whose blood should be brought inside) that became Pasul. They are burned in Beis ha'Birah.
Moshav Zekenim #2 (citing Zevachim 101a 1 ): We could not learn from Kodshei Sha'ah on to all generations. Even though Se'ir Rosh Chodesh is Kodshei Doros, it is called Kodshei Sha'ah, since burning it immediately was a Hora'as Sha'ah 2 according to the opinion that it was burned due to Aninus. For Doros, any P'sul due to the blood or owner is burned folloowing Ibur Tzurah (after it becomes Nosar). Perhaps also burning it [if the blood was brought inside] was a Hora'as Sha'ah!
I did not find this in the Gemara there. (PF) In Pasuk 19 the Moshav Zekenim says that the opinion that it was burned due to Aninus holds like R. Yochanan ben Brokah (Pesachim 82a), that whenever no one.may eat a Korban, it is burned immediately.
This is difficult. Moshe accepted Aharon's answer that he burned it because there was no source to permit eating it! If it was a Hora'as Sha'ah - that Hashem told Moshe to tell them to burn it, why did Moshe get angry? (PF)
