What did Hashem mean, when He told Moshe that He had hardened the hearts of Pharaoh and his servants, in order to place His signs in their midst?
Seforno: He meant that the plagues would give at least some Egyptians an opportunity to do Teshuvah. 1
Why did Hashem deem it necessary to inform Moshe that he had hardened Pharaoh's heart?
Seforno: When Pharaoh declared "Hashem ha'Tzadik... !", Moshe assumed that, even though he had not relented out of fear of Hashem, 1 he would capitulate out of fear of the Makos. When he saw that this was not the case, he figured that his warnings were in vain. So Hashem told him that it was He who had hardened Pharaoh's heart already from the plague of boils, in order to send more plagues on Egypt - a. to encourage at least some Egyptians to do Teshuvah, and b. so that Yisrael should relate to future generations Hashem's greatness and goodness. 2
Moshav Zekenim: Because after Pharaoh admitted "Hashem ha'Tzadik," he continued to sin.
Oznayim la'Torah: One can offer three reasons for this; 1. Because this was the third time that Pharaoh broke his word to send Yisrael out, 3 and Moshe saw no point in continuing to warn him. 2. From Makas Barad and onwards, Pharaoh's servants began to get involved 4 - some wanted to send Yisrael away, others did not. They constituted the majority opinion - which prevailed, and Hashem therefore informed Moshe that He had hardened, not only the heart of Pharaoh but also the hearts of his servants. 3. To explain to Moshe why He stopped the locusts from consuming the wheat and the spelt - which he (Moshe) found puzzling. 5
Our verse implies that it was Hashem who hardened Pharaoh's heart after Makas Barad. But the preceding two verses (9:34-35) make it sound like Pharaoh hardened his own heart?
Gur Aryeh (to 7:3): The end of Makas Barad did not leave Pharaoh especially awestruck. Each hailstone falls separately, so (in Pharaoh's perception) all that happened was that no more were allowed to fall. He rationalized that the plague had ended naturally, that he had waited out the storm - and he hardened his own heart. But subsequently, Hashem hardened it further; otherwise Pharaoh would have capitulated the moment he heard the warning about Makas Arbeh.
Why, in fact, did Hashem make Pharaoh's heart heavy, and hold him back from repenting and freeing the Bnei Yisrael?
Pharaoh was a dictator. Why did Hashem need to harden the hearts of his servants?
Oznayim la'Torah (citing Midrash ha'Gadol): Because Pharaoh consulted his servants (towards the end of the plagues, when he was already beginning to cave in), in order to strengthen him and give him courage him in moments of weakness. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Avadav' who elaborates.
Hashem instructed Moshe to come before Pharaoh, but the Torah does not inform us why?
Ramban (to 10:2): It was to pass on the message spelled out in Pesukim 10:3-6.
Why does the Pasuk not tell us Hashem's instructions to Moshe?
Bechor Shor and Ramban (to 10:2): It is the way of the Torah to tell us half the story, and to take the other half for granted. 1 Here the Torah recorded what Moshe told Pharaoh, in order to cite his response and the response of his servants.
Riva (citing R"M mi'Kutzi): The hail did not finish off all the vegetation, because Pharaoh was partially humbled. When he continued to sin, Moshe told him that if he does not let Yisrael go, the locusts will finish what the hail did not.
Rosh, Hadar Zekenim and Da'as Zekenim (to 10:4): Moshe was able to derive the plague of Arbeh from a Gezerah Shavah, "Tesaper" "Siperu" from Yo'el. 2
Moshav Zekenim: "Ososai" alludes to the last four Makos.
Moshav Zekenim citing Bechor Shor: The initials of the Makos were written on his staff, and he understood that the 'Alef' stands for Arbeh. 3
Gur Aryeh: Refer to 10:1:4.2:2 and 10:1:4.2:3.
This assumes Hashem taught Sifrei Nevi'im to Moshe. Moshav Zekenim - This is wrong. Sefer Yo'el was not written until long after Moshe! (Why would Hashem teach the Nevi'im to Moshe before Matan Torah, and before teaching him the Chumash?! Why would Moshe agree to send Meraglim, if he knew that "Hemisu Es Lev ha'Am" (Yehoshua 14:2)? And why did Moshe Daven to enter Eretz Yisrael, and fear Og, and need to stipulate that Bnei Gad and Bnei Reuven should cross the Yarden to fight? These outcomes are all clear from Yehoshua 1:2, 2:10, and 4:12! Perhaps Hashem withheld certain parts of the Nevi'im and did not teach them to Moshe, or made him forget them. We must say similarly about Midrash Vayikra Rabah 22:1, which says that Moshe received on Sinai everything that every Chacham will teach. We find that Moshe had Sefekos afterwards, such as with regard to sentencing the Mekalel and the Mekoshesh, Pesach Sheni, and the Benos Tzelafchad!) PF
The Da'as Zekenim (to 10:4) rejects this, because why did Hashem then need to tell Moshe about the last Makos?
Why does the Torah write here "Bo El Pharaoh," and elsewhere, "Lech El Pharaoh"?
Since Hashem hardened the heart of Pharaoh, what was his sin? (It says "va'Yosef la'Chato" (9:34).)
Hadar Zekenim: Hashem hardened his heart, only after Pharaoh hardened his heart by himself three 1 times.
The Torah says that Pharaoh hardened his heart after Aharon's staff swallowed the magicians' staffs, and after each of the first five Makos! Three times it says "va'Yechezak," and three times it says "Hichbid." (However, Hadar Zekenim seems to use these interchangeably - PF.)
Bearing in mind that Pharaoh's servants would advise him to let Yisrael go (10:7), how can the Torah write "Ani Hichbadti Es Libo v'Es Lev Avadav"?
Moshav Zekenim: They would say only to send out the men, but not the women and children. 1
See Ramban to the end of Va'era.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Come to Pharaoh' - and issue him a warning. "Why does Rashi need to add this?
Rashi writes: "'Come to Pharaoh' - and issue him a warning." Why doesn't the Torah tell us (at this point), that Hashem told Moshe the content of this warning?
Gur Aryeh #1: The Torah will tell us the text of the warning, when Moshe issues it to Pharaoh (10:3-6). 1 It does not need to state it twice.
Gur Aryeh #2: Moshe saw that the wheat and spelt had been miraculously spared by the hail (see Rashi to 9:32). He inferred that the only possible reason was so that it would be stricken in turn 2 by the next Makah. 3
Gur Aryeh #3: In fact, Hashem hints to the next Makah's nature, in the next verse, "In order that you will tell your child and grandchild ..." (10:2). Arbeh is the type of plague 4 that is remembered for generations; refer to 10:1:4.4:1.
Gur Aryeh: The Torah chooses to write it at that point, when it will need to add how Moshe and Aharon were summoned back to the palace (10:8). Compare to Ramban (see 10:1:3, and 10:1:4:1.) Similarly, the warning of Makas Bechoros will also appear when Moshe tells it to Pharaoh (11:4-8).
But we might have thought that miracle happened for the Egyptians' benefit! Refer to 9:32:1.2 and 9:32:1.3:1*.
Gur Aryeh: Essentially then, Barad and Arbeh were the same Makah, split into two stages.
Rashi writes: "'Come to Pharaoh' - and issue him a warning" (which the Torah will specify later, when Moshe tells it to Pharaoh - see 10:1:4.2:1). But if so, why even write "Bo El Pharaoh"? If Moshe indeed came before him (10:3), we may safely assume that Hashem had commanded him to do so!
Gur Aryeh: Had this Pasuk not been written, I would have thought that there was no direct command to address Pharaoh [immediately, in his palace], 1 but rather that Moshe could wait until the next time Pharaoh appeared by the Nile.
Rashi writes: "'Come to Pharaoh' - and issue him a warning." Moshe then deduced that the next plague would strike the wheat and spelt, which had been spared by the hail (see 10:1:4.2:2). Essentially then, Barad and Arbeh were the same Makah, split into two stages. If so, why was Makas Arbeh necessary; why not strike all the crops at once?
Gur Aryeh: The more Makos of differing types that Hashem brought, served to further publicize His Name and His ability. As the next verse explains, "In order that you will tell your children..." (10:2). Specifically, locusts are the type of plague that is remembered and retold for generations. An event that is commonplace 1 does not awaken any memories of the past; but on the other hand, an event that never happens 2 will also never have the occasion to be remembered. Locusts do come about naturally, but infrequently - such that every future appearance of locusts (even to a small degree), will bring up the memory of the Arbeh in Mitzrayim. In addition, people greatly fear locusts and the devastation they cause; this too causes them to remember the Makah in Mitzrayim.
Rashi writes: "Shisi - 'Simi; she'Ashis Ani' (that I shall place)." How else could we have explained this? And why does Rashi seemingly repeat his translation?
Moshav Zekenim #1: One might have explained that Hashem will send the signs through an intermediary. Therefore, Rashi emphasizes that Hashem Himself will send them.
Moshav Zekenim #2: One might have otherwise thought that it is a command in the feminine 1 - as in "Shisi Libech" (Yirmeyah 31:2).
Gur Aryeh #1: The word "Shis" appears in Tehilim 73:6 and in Mishlei 7:10, with a different meaning. 2 But here, it means 'to place.'
Gur Aryeh #2: Rashi emphasizes that although the word appears to be in past tense (i.e., 'the Makos that I have emplaced already'); it must be referring to the future (the Makos yet to come - which Moshe would now warn them about).
This is difficult, since Hashem is speaking to Moshe! Also, how can a command follow the word "Lema'an" (in order that)? (PF)
Rashi (also Malbim) to those Pesukim explains the word as a euphemism to the hindquarters, as in Shmuel II 10:4; and that is clearly not the meaning here. (Metzudos, however, interprets those Pesukim as "to place" as well.)
