The pasuk states (Devarim 25, 5), "...her brother-in-law will come to her'' - this refers to marital relations; "and take her to himself as a wife'' - this refers to ma'amar (her brother-in-law betrothing her with money).

One might think that just as marital relations complete a full marriage with her, so ma'amar would do the same...

The pasuk then states, "...and he will perform levirate marriage'' - only relations can complete a levirate marriage, so even though ma'amar does take her as a wife, relations are still needed to complete the marriage.

...and the only result of ma'amar is that she is now prohibited to do yibum with one of the other brother-in-laws.

R. Shimon: It is doubtful whether ma'amar makes an acquisition or not.

Question: What is the reasoning of R. Shimon?

Answer: Either he learns like (a) and (b)1. above (that ma'amar does acquire her but not fully);

Or he learns "...her brother-in-law will come to her'' - only through relations he can acquire her, but ma'amar does not achieve anything.

R. Elazar ben Arach: Ma'amar makes a complete acquisition of a yevamah.

Question: What is the reasoning of R''EBA?

Answer: "...and take her to himself as a wife'' - it is like regular Kidushin of a woman; just as regular Kidushin would make a complete acquisition of a yevamah, so too Ma'amar makes a complete acquisition of a yevamah.

Question: How is ma'amar performed on a yevamah? "You are betrothed to me with (this) silver (or equivalent)''.

Question (R. Yitzchak): Why did the Mishnah not list earlier in (Daf 2-3 1. f)) that "her friend's chalitzah'' is a third way that a yevamah acquires herself? (If a man with two wives died, if his brother performs chalitzah with one wife, the other wife automatically goes free.)

Retraction of question (R.Yitzchak): When the Mishnah listed chalitzah as a way that she acquires herself, did this not also include her friend's chalitzah?!

Question: The Mishnah also taught that a yevamah is acquired through having marital relations. Could this possibly be referring to both when she or her friend had relations?! (On the contrary, her friend having relations actually exempts her from yibum!)

Conclusion: Rather, the Mishnah is referring to a case where there is only one yevamah, not two.

Question (R. Shmuel bar R. Yitzchak): How does a betrothed slave woman acquire herself to exempt her from lashes for adultery and from the adulterer becoming liable in a guilt offering?

She certainly does not leave through a get, as R. Chiya citing R. Yochanan as saying that if someone who is half a slave and half free betrothed a woman, his Kidushin is invalid; similarly, if he divorced his wife with a get, it is invalid.

It is obvious that she does not leave through a get...

As R. Yosi said citing R. Yochanan, that in front of R. Akiva, Akilas (Unkelos) the convert translated into Aramaic the pasuk (Vayikra 19, 20), "and she is a slave woman betrothed (necherefes) to a man'' as "and she is a slave woman beketushah (crushed) before a man'', i.e. she had already had relations with a man. (However, if she was a virgin, if one had relations with her, he would not be liable.) This is similar to the pasuk that states (Shmuel 2, 17, 19), "...and she sprinkled upon it some crushed groats (harifos)''. (Groats are physically changed by crushing; similarly this slave woman had been physically changed, as she had already had relations.) We prove from here that Kidushin alone would not cause an adulterer to be liable; so too, divorce alone would not send her out.

R. Chiya citing R. Yochanan: R. Elazar bei R. Shimon also explained it before the Chachamim in this way - "and she is a slave woman betrothed (necherefes) to a man'' as "and she is a slave woman beketushah (crushed) before a man''. This is similar to the pasuk that states (Mishlei 27, 22), "...if you crush him with a pestle''.

Question: Could a Canaanite slave woman acquire herself through the death of her master or after six years (as is found in the laws of Jewish maidservant)?

(Rhetorical) Question: Did R. Shmuel bar R. Yitzchak (see earlier 2)(a)) ask this question according to R. Akiva who holds that a "betrothed slave woman'' is a woman who is half slave woman and half free, who is betrothed to a free man? (According to R''A, the death of the master certainly would not free her from the state of betrothal, since the half that he betrothed was the 'half free' part of her.) (Note: This and the next two entries follow the text and the explanation of the Pnei Moshe.)

The question is according to R. Yishmael, as he says that the Torah's case of a "betrothed slave woman'' is a Canaanite slave woman who was married to a Jewish slave - even though it is a betrothal that is sourced in Torah, as the pasuk states in reference to a Jewish slave (Shemos 21, 4), "if his master shall give him a wife'', there is still a doubt as to whether she acquires herself upon the death of the master or the completion of six years of the Jewish slave's servitude...? (Since the master married them off, maybe his death dissolves the betrothal.)

This question can only follow the opinion that holds that a Jewish slave does not serve the inheritor of his master upon the death of the master. (Note: The Gemara leaves the question unanswered.)

(Mishnah): A Jewish slave is acquired through money or a document.

He acquires himself with "years'' (having served six years of slavery), through the arrival of the Yovel year or through reduction (giraon - redemption whose price is gradually reduced based on the number of years of slavery already served).

A Jewish maidservant also acquires herself when she produces physical signs of adulthood (simanim).

A nirtza (a Jewish slave who agreed to extend his slavery until the Yovel year upon which his master bores a hole in his ear) is acquired through boring and he acquires himself through the arrival of Yovel or through the death of the master.

Gemara: The pasuk states (Devarim 15, 12), "If your brother will be sold to you, a Jew or a Jewess'' - the Torah compares a Jewish slave to a Jewish maidservant; just as a maidservant is acquired with money or a document, so too a Jewish slave.

The source that a maidservant is acquired through money is the pasuk (Shemos 21, 11), "...and she shall leave free of charge, without payment''.

Question: But what is the source that a maidservant is acquired through a document?

Answer: A maidservant is learned (through a Binyan Av) from the acquisition of a free woman; a slave is learned from a maidservant (also through a Binyan Av).

Question: How can we learn from a case that it itself was learned from another case - only R. Akiva allows this but R. Yishmael does not?!

Answer: There is a Beraisa that teaches that R. Yishmael learns slave from Canaanite slave woman through a Gezeirah Shavah - the pasuk states about a Jewish slave (Shemos 21,2), "he shall go free''; and concerning a betrothed Canaanite slave woman the pasuk states (Vayikra 19, 20), "...or freedom has not been given to her''.

Question: Does R. Yishmael usually not allow us to learn from a case that it itself was learned from another case and here he does allow it?!

Answer: This Beraisa was authored anonymously.

Question: From where does R''Y learn that a Jewish slave is acquired with a document?

Answer: From a Gezeirah Shavah. In reference to a wife, the pasuk states (Devarim 24, 1), "...and he sent her from his house'' and in reference to a Jewish slave, the pasuk states (Devarim 15, 12), "...you shall send him away from you free''. Just as a wife is sent away using a document, so too a Jewish slave.

Question: They are not comparable - there, a wife is acquiring herself; here, the slave is being acquired to others?!

Answer (R. Matanya): We make a different Gezeirah Shavah - The pasuk states about a Jewish slave (Devarim 15, 12), "If your brother will be sold to you, a Jew or a Jewess'' and about a field, the pasuk states (Vayikra 25, 25), "...and sells part of his ancestral heritage''; just as a field is acquired through a document, so too a Jewish slave. (Note: This and the next two entries follow the explanation of the Pnei Moshe.)

Question: If so, just as a field may be acquired through taking possession, so too a Jewish slave?

Answer: Rather - in answer to (m), a slave is compared to a maidservant (in the pasuk later on), to give them same law of acquiring with a document.

The Mishnah taught: A Jewish slave is acquired through money. In reference to a Jewish slave acquired by a gentile, the pasuk states (Vayikra 25, 50), "...and the money of his purchase'' - he is acquired with money but not with grains or utensils.

Question: In all other situation the Torah views monetary equivalents like money itself (such as in marriage, redemption and paying damages). Why not here?

Answer (R. Aba Mari): The pasuk (verse 51) repeated the word "kesef'' to specifically allow only money to be used.

The Gemara adds: Even R. Chiya bar Ada would agree that he could use even grains or utensils to pay giraon kesef.

R. Yudan, father of R, Matanya: It is only true that grains/utensils may not be used for acquisition when they were not evaluated, but once they were evaluated, they are considered to be the same as money.