1)

(a)We just learned that according to Rava, we can extrapolates from Hillel that, in all similar cases, where Hillel did not institute his Takanah, such a transaction (against the will of the recipient) would not be valid, whereas, Rav Papa (or Rav Shimi bar Ashi) restricts Hillel's Takanah to payments that are made in the recipient's absence. What do Rava and Rav Papa say in the second Lashon?

(b)According to Rav Papa in this Lashon (and Rava in the first Lashon), why did Raban Shimon ben Gamliel confine his Takanah to a case where the recipient was absent?

(c)What does Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan say about cases where Raban Shimon ben Gamliel appears in a Mishnah?

1)

(a)We just learned that according to Rava, we can extrapolate from Hillel that, in all similar cases, where Hillel did not institute his Takanah, such a transaction (against the will of the recipient) would not be valid, whereas, Rav Papa (or Rav Shimi bar Ashi) restricts Hillel's Takanah to payments that are made in the recipient's absence. In the second Lashon, Rava and Rav Papa simply reverse their opinions and it is Rava who maintains that Hillel restricted his Takanah to where he makes the payment in the recipient's absence, and Rav Papa who does not differentiate.

(b)According to Rav Papa in this Lashon (and Rava in the first Lashon), Raban Shimon ben Gamliel confined his Takanah to a case where the recipient was absent (not on principle, but) because that happened to be the case that they were dealing with at the time.

(c)Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan says that wherever Raban Shimon ben Gamliel's appears in a Mishnah the Halachah is like him, except for three cases: 'Areiv' (in Bava Basra), 'Tzidon' (our case) and 'Re'ayah Acharonah' (in Sanhedrin).

2)

(a)What does the Beraisa say in a case where the husband hands his wife a Get stipulating that ...

1. ... the paper remains his?

2. ... his wife must return the paper?

(b)According to our initial understanding (which will be explained shortly), is there any Sevara to differentiate between the two cases?

(c)Consequently, Rav Chisda suggests that the author of the Seifa is Raban Shimon ben Gamliel in the previous Mishnah. How will that explain our Mishnah?

(d)On what grounds does Abaye refute this suggestion? Why would even Raban Shimon ben Gamliel concede that the woman would be obligated to return the paper itself?

2)

(a)The Beraisa rules that in a case where the husband hands his wife a Get stipulating that ...

1. ... the paper remains his the Get is invalid.

2. ... his wife must return the paper the Get is valid.

(b)According to our initial understanding (which will be explained shortly) there is no Sevara to differentiate between the two cases.

(c)Consequently, Rav Chisda suggests that the author of the Seifa is Raban Shimon ben Gamliel in the previous Mishnah according to whom, the woman should have the option of giving her ex-husband the value of the paper instead of the paper.

(d)Abaye refutes this suggestion however on the grounds that seeing as the paper is still in existence, even Raban Shimon ben Gamliel will concede that the woman would be obligated to return it, and not its value.

3)

(a)So Abaye establishes the Seifa like Rebbi Meir (in connection with the Dinim of Tenai). What does Rebbi Meir say? Why then is the Tenai Batel in the Seifa?

(b)How do both Rav Chisda and Abaye explain 'Al-Menas she'Tachziri ... '? Why do they decline to solve the seeming contradiction between the Reisha and the Seifa by explaining that, in the Seifa, the Get takes effect immediately, whereas the woman only returns the paper later?

(c)Rava attempts to resolve the contradiction by pointing out that even according to the Rabanan of Rebbi Meir, the Tenai would be Batel, because we require the Tenai to precede the Ma'aseh, which is not the case in our Mishnah. What is the source of these Halachos of Tenai?

(d)Rav Ada bar Ahavah points out that, even without Rava's observation, the Tenai ought to be invalid in the Seifa. Which third Din in Tenai do we learn from that of Bnei Gad and Bnei Reuven?

3)

(a)So Abaye establishes the Seifa like Rebbi Meir who (does not accept any inferences with regard to Tenai but) requires a 'Tenai Kaful' (a double Tenai [e.g. 'I will give you ... if you do ... , but not if you don't'), which is not the case in the Seifa. Consequently, the Tenai is Batel, and the Ma'aseh stands.

(b)Both Rav Chisda and Abaye explain 'Al-Menas she'Tachziri ... ' like the Rabanan (who hold 'Al-Menas is not like me'Achshav'. Consequently, the Ma'aseh only becomes valid when the woman returns the paper) which explains why they decline to solve the seeming contradiction between the Reisha and the Seifa by explaining that, in the Seifa, the Get takes effect immediately, whereas the woman only returns the paper later.

(c)Rava attempts to resolve the contradiction by pointing out that even according to the Rabanan of Rebbi Meir, the Tenai would be Batel, because we require the Tenai to precede the Ma'aseh, which is not the case in our Mishnah. The source of these Halachos of Tenai is the condition that Moshe made with the Bnei Gad and the Bnei Reuven, that they would not receive their portion of land on the West Bank, unless they crossed the Jordan River together with the other tribes and fought alongside them in the conquest of Kena'an.

(d)Rav Ada bar Ahavah points out that, even without Rava's observation, the Tenai ought to be invalid in the Seifa because we also learn from the Tenai of the Bnei Gad and Bnei Reuven that the Tenai and the Ma'aseh must pertain to different things (the Tenai regarding crossing the Yarden and fighting, and the Ma'aseh regarding the portion of land), whereas in our case, the Tenai and the Ma'aseh both concern the Get.

75b----------------------------------------75b

4)

(a)Rav Ashi resolves the contradiction by establishing the Seifa like Rebbi. What does he mean by that? What does Rebbi say?

4)

(a)Rav Ashi resolves the contradiction by establishing the Seifa like Rebbi meaning that 'Al-Menas she'Tachziri ... ' is effective immediately (because Rebbi holds 'Kol ha'Omer Al-Menas k'Omer me'Achshav Dami'), whereas the woman only returns the paper later.

5)

(a)Shmuel instituted that whenever a Shechiv-Mera gives a Shtar (a Get Shechiv-Mera), he must say 'Im Lo Meisi Lo Yehei Get; Im Meisi Yehei Get'. Why is that?

(b)Why did he not ...

1. ... reverse the order 'Im Meisi Yehei Get; Im Lo Meisi Lo Yehei Get'?

2. ... rather conclude 'Lo Yehei Get Im Lo Meisi'?

(c)What problem does Rava have with the order of Shmuel's Takanah?

(d)So how does he amend the wording to eliminate all problems?

5)

(a)Shmuel instituted that whenever a Shechiv-Mera gives a Shtar (a Get Shechiv-Mera), he must say 'Im Lo Meisi Lo Yehei Get; Im Meisi Yehei Get' because one requires a Tenai Kaful.

(b)He did he not ...

1. ... reverse the order 'Im Meisi Yehei Get; Im Lo Meisi Lo Yehei Get' because one does not ask a person to bring his own punishment forward (to mention death first).

2. ... rather conclude 'Lo Yehei Get Im Lo Meisi' because we also learn from the Bnei Gad and Reuven that the Tenai must precede the Ma'aseh.

(c)The problem Rava has with the order of Shmuel's Takanah is that (in spite of the above reasoning) the positive side of the condition must precede the negative one.

(d)So to eliminate all problems he leaves the current wording intact, simply adding 'Im Lo Meisi Yehei Get' (so that the Tenai should precede the Ma'aseh).

6)

(a)What time period does our Mishnah require in a case where a husband stipulated 'Harei Zeh Gitech Al-Menas she'Teshamshi Es Aba? For how long must his wife comply for the Get to be valid?

(b)If he said ' ... Al-Menas she'Teniki Es B'ni', she must feed the child for two years according to the Tana Kama. What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(c)What will be the Din if his father or the baby died before the end of the required period?

6)

(a)If a husband stipulated 'Harei Zeh Gitech Al-Menas she'Teshamshi Es Aba', our Mishnah requires his wife to serve his father for as long as he lives for the Get to be valid.

(b)If he said ' ... Al-Menas she'Teniki Es B'ni', she must feed the child for two years according to the Tana Kama. Rebbi Yehudah says for eighteen months.

(c)In the event that his father or the baby died the Get is valid (because he mentioned no time period, in which case he only meant her to perform the services for as long as they were needed, but not once they become obsolete).

7)

(a)How will the Din differ if, in the previous two cases, the husband actually stipulated a period of two years and then his father or the baby died, or if his father subsequently declined her services?

(b)Will it make any difference in the latter case, if the woman did nothing to make her ex father-in-law angry (that caused him to decline her services) ...

1. ... according to the Tana Kama?

2. ... according to Raban Shimon ben Gamliel?

7)

(a)If, in the previous two cases, the husband actually stipulated a period of two years and then his father or the baby died, or if his father subsequently declined her services then the Get is invalid (because the condition was not fulfilled).

(b)If, in the latter case, the woman did nothing to make her ex father-in-law angry (that caused him to decline her services) ...

1. ... according to the Tana Kama the Get will nevertheless be invalid (because when all's said and done, the condition was not fulfilled).

2. ... according to Raban Shimon ben Gamliel the Get will be valid, (because any condition that is broken not on the woman's account does not negate the Get).

8)

(a)According to the Beraisa, it will suffice for the woman to feed the child or to serve her ex-husband's father for one day. What do we mean when we initially establish our Mishnah like Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and the Beraisa, like the Rabanan?

(b)On what grounds do we refute this suggestion?

(c)So how do we resolve the apparent contradiction based on the same Machlokes Tana'im?

8)

(a)According to the Beraisa, it will suffice for the woman to feed the child or to serve her ex-husband's father for one day. When we initially establish our Mishnah like Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and the Beraisa, like the Rabanan, we mean that just as Raban Shimon ben Gamliel is lenient in the previous Mishnah (where he permits giving her husband the value of his coat) based on the fact that he only has had his own convenience in mind, so too, will he be strict in our Mishnah for the same reason (that as long as his father requires serving or his baby feeding, she must do it); whilst the Beraisa follows the opinion of the Rabanan (who adhere strictly to the words of the stipulation, and not to the stipulator's intentions).

(b)We refute this suggestion however, on the grounds that seeing as the author of the Seifa is Raban Shimon ben Gamliel, the author of the Reisha cannot be him as well.

(c)So we resolve the apparent contradiction based on the same Machlokes Tana'im but based on different criteria. Our Mishnah follows the opinion of the Rabanan, who are strict with regard to the Dinim of Tenai, whereas the Beraisa follows that of Raban Shimon ben Gamliel, who is lenient.

9)

(a)Rava disagrees. What does Rava mean when he says 'Kan bi'Stam, Kan bi'Mefaresh'?

(b)Rav Ashi disagrees with both the first answer and with Rava. How does he establish the Beraisa?

10)

(a)How does Rav Ashi ...

1. ... therefore explain our Mishnah, where the Tana Kama requires the woman to feed the baby for two years (and Rebbi Yehudah, for eighteen months)?

2. ... then explain the Reisha 'Mes ha'Ben O ha'Av, Harei Zeh Get'? For how long did she then fulfil the Tenai?

(b)What is the problem with this?

(c)How does Rav Ashi solve it?

9)

(a)Rava disagrees. He says 'Kan bi'Stam, Kan bi'Mefaresh' meaning that (the Reisha of) our Mishnah speaks in a case of Stam, whereas the Beraisa speaks when he specified one day (like the Seifa of our Mishnah).

(b)Rav Ashi disagrees with both the first answer and with Rava he establishes even the Beraisa by Stam. According to him, Stam has the same Din as Mefaresh.

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