Why was the reason for not accepting witnesses after the time for minchah given as the Leviim would recite the wrong shir. Why did the gemora not refer to the fact that the tamid shel bayn ha'arbayim would have been brought and that the musafim for Rosh Hashana could not be brought thereafter because the tamid shel bayn ha'arbayim is supposed to be the last korban brought (except for korban Pesach)?
Michael S. Winokur, Forest Hills, NY, USA
Dear Michael,
Thanks for your excellent question. This question is raised by Tosfos in Rosh Hashanah 30b DH v'Niskalkelu. Tosfos explains that the Mitzvah of bringing the Musafin for Rosh Hashanah would override the prohibition of bringing a Korban after the Tamid since it a Mitzvah for the Tzibur. Tosfos sites a few examples to support this approach.
Kol tuv.
Y. Landy