The gemara says v'Kichah Ikrei Kinyan my question is that when the gemara says this, does the gemara mean that we find that the Loshon of kicha is a kinyan.
Or does the gemara mean that kicha which is refering to money means kinyan and then the gemara goes on to prove that when we use a Loshon of money it refers to it as a kinyan?
My 2nd question is that why does the gemara need to bring 2 proofs that kesef is a kinyan.
Many thanks
Benzi
Benzi, London
1) Rashi writes explicltly (bottom line of Rashi 2a) that Kichah is a loshon of kinyan.
2) Tosfos 2b DH Ee Nami writes that the first verse could be explained to mean "the field which Avraham acquired through Chazoka or a Shtar". The Maharsha writes that the reason that the second verse is required is because in the first verse is does not state kesef next to kinyan in the same way that it does in the second verse.
Benzi, wishing you and all your family a Healthy Summer!
Dovid Bloom