If a Jewish woman, even by accident or unknowingly (thinking he was Jewish), has had sex with a non-Jew, she is rendered unfit for marriage to a kohen because she has contracted znut. What of a kohen who has casual unmarried sex with a non-Jewess? Moreover, a non-Jewess who has had children? Or who has had sodomy even with a Jewish woman? Is his kedusha not affected by these actions? Would his sons be considered hallel or kosher kohanim? If so, why and if not, why not?
Thank you in advance for your time.
Bobby Shapiro, Omaha, Nebraska
The verse says in Vayikra 21:15 "v'lo Yechalel Zar'o ," or "[A Kohen may not marry a divorcee etc., that] his children should not become Challalim." From this we learn that although the children from an illicit marriage of a Kohen become Chalalim, the father himself does not.
However, the Mishnah in Bechoros (45b) teaches that a Kohen who marries a woman who is forbidden to him is not permitted to perform the Temple service until he takes an oath to divorce them.
Thank you very much, and for such a fast response.
If you have the time for a follow-up question, a Jewish woman who has had sex with a man who is the son of a Jewish father and a non-Jewish mother - she is also forbidden to a Cohen since we understand that a person is defined as Jewish according to his mother. Was this always the case or was there a time when such a woman would have been permissable to a Cohen (essentially having had sex with a Jew, but as defined by the father)?
Again, thank you for your time.
We learn from the Pasuk "Ki Yasir Es Bincha me'Acharay" (Devarim 7:4) that the child of the union of a Jew and a non-Jewess is a non-Jew. (Kidushin 23a)
This has always been the case (ever since the Torah was given), and always will be.