The Gem. brings a proof that Pegiah is really Tefillah because it says in Yirmiyahu 7:16 ...al tispallel be'ad ha'am.....v'al tifgah bi.
Isn't this really a proof that 'tifgah' doesn't mean tefillah; because it had already said 'tefillah' in the posuk!?
Thank you
alex lebovits, toronto, canada
It is common for the Gemara to bring proofs of this nature, when two words are mentioned in the same context, one of them whose meaning is known whilst the other,is not (i.e. the former reflects on the latter). This means that the basic meaning of the two words is the same, though their connotations may differ slightly. For example, in this case, "Tispalel" means 'pray', and "Tifga" means 'beg' or 'beseech'(see Malbim).
be'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler