On Yevamot 98a the Gemara says: Ha d'amur rabbanan 'Ein Av L'mitsri' - and the gemara goes on to explain this.
Should the gemara not first have asked: Why state 'Mitsri' - and the whole sugya relates to all gentiles? Should the girsa not be "Nochri"?
The pasuk in Yehezkel may be understood to mean Bavli, not Mitsri - and, in any case, the pasuk has been used often enough to relate to all gentiles!
Perhaps the gemara relates to a folk-saying, but does not mean to refer to Mitzri more than to another nation?
Although it is unlikely that the Girsa of Mitzri is unreliable, K'sav Yad Minchen (the Munich library manuscript of the Talmud) indeed has the Girsa as "l'Goi."
By the way, "d'Amri Inshi" can be a folk-saying; "d'Amri Rabanan" is the Gospel.
Dov Zupnik