I don't understand two things here: https://dafyomi.co.il/pesachim/tosfos/ps-ts-097.htm
First, in section 14c why does it say "according to Rav"?
Second, how does Tosfos answer his question (14b-c)?
yishai rasowsky, Israel
Sholom Rav.
Regarding your first question, the words "according to Rav" are incorrect as you point out. Thank you for bringing it to our attention.
To answer your second question, I will begin by citing the Gemara in Temurah, Daf 19b which poses Tosfos' question and answers 'Since Kedushas Damim descends upon the animal, so does (a certain degree of - See Rashi DH 'Nachsah Lah') Kedushas ha'Guf' - which explains why the animal requires a blemish before it can be redeemed.
Presumably, R. Shimon, who holds that the animal may be sold directly, disagrees with that principle.
Regarding 'Nekeivah le'Pischo' however, we do not need to come on to the principle stated in the Gemara in Temurah, since the animal itself is fit to be brought as a Shelamim after Pesach, and consequently, it already contains an element of Kedushas ha'Guf. And that explains why R. Shimon will also agree that one may not sell it before it obtains a blemish, as Tosfos concludes.
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv.
Sincerely yours
Eliezer Chrysler