Hello kollel!
The gemara on daf 69 talks about how once kiddushin is done, the woman is prohibited to all men de'oraita, and to her betrothed derabbanan. I think the rambam holds the same way, and i'd assume that's how we hold in the final din.
My question is why in the wording of the bracha at weddings do we say v'Tzivanu Al ha'Arayos v'Asar Lanu Es ha'Arusos.... this seems to lump the arusot together with the prohibition on arayos which is de-oraita. maybe i'm reading to much into it, or it's like the bracha on chanukkah where we include divrei sofrim in "vetzivanu"?
Thank you!
Josh
Dear Josh,
Very interiesting question. Incidentally, the Rambam codifies the words a drop differently, "separated us from Arayos" (1), as opposed to the formulation we find in our Gemara, "commanded us concerning the Arayos" (2). The commentaries (3) explain the Rambam's version based on Chazal's understanding of the Mitzvah "to be holy" (4), i.e. to keep away from Arayos (5). Thus, according to the Rambam, you might still have your question, albeit with a slightly different nuance.
Regarding what you said about Berachos including rabbinically enacted Mitzvos, I believe you are Mechaven to Rashi's explanation, including the reference to Ner Chanukah (6). It was very sharp of you to point out that this Berachah includes both a reference to commands of both a Torah level and also a rabbinic level. Offhand I cannot think of another such example of a Berachah.
Another important interpretation to be aware of, and according to which your question has a very smooth answer, would be that of the Ra'avad cited by the Rashba (7), who says that the prohibition of Arus and Arusah is in fact Min ha'Torah, not just mid'Rabanan.
Best wishes,
Yishai Rasowsky
Thank you for the response! Two follows one:
1) this may be a klutz kashe but is there any possibility the "asar lanu et haarusot" part isn't addressed to the groom but rather to the eidim or the rest of the guests? To make clear the bride is according to all opinions now forbidden to other men?
2) how is the mesader kiddushin able to make the bracha at all on behalf of the groom? It's not like a bracha on food where I can be yotzei you and we both eat....he actually specifically can't marry the woman he's making the bracha about? Parallel: if I take a neder not to eat an apple, and then you pick the apple up can I make the bracha for you even though it's assur to me?
Dear Josh,
Great to hear from you.
1) If "Asar Lanu" is referring to men other than the husband, then how would we understand the next words in the Berachah that say she becomes permitted via Nesu'in? One might think it means that a Nesu'ah is permitted to other men. The Rishonim actually address this potential mistake. For example, according to Rabeinu Tam the Nusach reads, "Who permitted to us our own Nesu'os" (1). And even though the Shulchan Aruch does not rule this way, later commentaries do (3).
2) Tosfos explains this on the basis of the precedent of Eliezer who made the Berachah for Yitzchak's marriage to Rivka (2). The commentaries explain that this became the custom based on the fact that not all people can recite it themselves (4).
Best regards,
Yishai Rasowsky
2. https://dafyomi.co.il/kesuvos/tosfos/ks-ts-007.htm#:~:text=%D7%95%D7%99%D7%A9%20%D7%9C%D7%9C%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%93%20%D7%9E%D7%A9%D7%9D,was%20a%20Shali%27ach.