How does the fact that HaShem said to Yaakov perei urvei instead of peru urvu answer our question of how we know that when the verse in 1:28 says peru urvu that only refers to the man?
Jimmy Feterman, Jerusalem, Israel
Dear Jimmy,
Since it is written in singular, it is only for the man. The plural by Adam ha'Rishon is not a command to both man and woman, but a blessing to both (Tosfos DH v'Lo).
All the best,
Reuven Weiner