Michael asks:
Tosafos says the case in the mishna is where the poor man is a goy. I understand that therefore there is no further issue of Lifnei eever lo seeten michshol.
But if the mishna is speaking that the poor man is a goy , then how can the mishna say he is chayav hotzaah (if he does both the akira and hanacha)? He's a goy?
Michael, Baltimore, MD
The Kollel replies:
The Rashba asks your question on Tosfos.
The Tosfos Ha'Rosh already answered the question by adding that when the Mishnah says the Goy is Chayav, it means that if he would have been a Jew he would be Chayav.
All the best,
Yaakov Montrose