Hi. Can you please help me with these 2 questions? Gimmel amud bais
1. What is the dovor shnischadesh buh in the case of Lolam b'hem tovodu that Rabbi Yishmoel is referring to? In the first 2 cases the gemara explains the new halacha but by this one it does not appear to.
2.It appears to be out of order. Why are we saying that since the Torah says B'achaychem, it also says b'hem. The passuk of b'hem is before B'achaychem. It seems Tosfas Shantz switches the order but Rashi insists on Huchi Garsinon. Why? and if we keep it in that order how does it make sense that were repeating something if its the first thing we actually said?
Thank you!
Aron
Aron Mendelovitz, Spring Valley, USA
1) The Tosfos Shantz writes (in the name of his teacher, "Rebbi") that the Davar she'Nischadesh Bah is that initially we thought that "l'Olam Bahem Ta'avodu" teaches us that if one of the nations bore a son from the Kena'anis, one is allowed to make the son work, and now we are Mechadesh and say a new teaching: The verse is not referring to the child born from the Kena'anis but is referreing to the first generation, and we say that "Bahem" teaches that only Bahem is one allowed to male the son work, while "b'Acheichem" one is not allowed to work.
2) According to the original text of the Gemara it is in order, since "Bahem" comes before "b'Achaichem." Rashi deliberately switched the order. The Tosfos ha'Rosh writes that the reason why Rashi changed the order is because the original text is difficult since "b'Acheichem" tells us nothing new once we have already said "Bahem."
Kesivah v'Chasimah Tovah,
Dovid Bloom