The gemara uses a word mechtzas in a pasuk from Bamidbar 31:43 to show the word mechitzah can mean "division". From pasuk 27 to 42 there are half a dozen other similar uses of that shoresh that mean division. Why did the gemara choose the word in pasuk 43 as opposed to one of the earlier usages.
Menachem Weiman, St. Louis USA
Hi Manachem,
Thank you for your interesting question.
We need to differentiate between the different words that appear in the Perek. We are looking for a proof that the word 'Mechitza' can mean an outcome of a split into two parts, and not just a conceptual half or part that one might have out of a whole. The fact that the SHoresh Ch.T.Z can mean half (Chetzi) or splitting (va'Yachatz) or so, needs no proof and appears numerous times in the Tanach and Chazal. We want a specific meaning, an outcome of splitting into to two, specifically saying that 'Mechitza' is not halfs or splitting to two, but rather the outcome, in our case a splitted yard with two (equal) parts. The word Machatzit which appears a few times in the Perek, just means the conceptual half of the soldiers or of the rest of the people. The word "Mechtzas ha'Eida' means the part of the Eida after splitting.
But now, your question is still there, since it says in Posuk 36 "va'Tehi ha'Mechtza", so why did the Gemara bring the Posuk of the second half in Posuk 43?
I thought of an idea. The Gemara used the Posuk that proves there are TWO halfs, and not only the first 'Mechtza', which can also mean the 'Chetzi' of the soldiers. Once the Torah refers to two Mechtza's, we can prove that the meaning of the Posuk is two separated halves as an outcome of a split and not just a conceptual half.
I hope this helps,
Aharon Steiner