Rashi says DH v'Reish Lakish that v'I Kasha l'R' Yochanan Nami Ika l'Meimar b'Hasra'as Vadai v'Yisro Bo k'she'Ba l'Vatel Es ha'Aseh she'Hu Akiras ha'Lav. My question is what does Rashi mean by these last words of Akiras ha'Lav? But by him being Mevatel the Aseh he hasn't been Oker the Lav because the lav is still there?
Benzi, London
Dear Benzi,
Rashi means that when he erases (Mevatel) the Esei- which had the capacity to uproot the Lav- this is the time which brings Malkos and giving Hasraa right before this erasing of the Asei should be called Hasraas Vadai.
All the best,
Reuven Weiner
But why is it necessary for Rashi to say these last words of she'Hu Akiras ha'Lav? what's is he adding by saying this, Rashi could have just stopped after saying k'she'Ba l'Vatel Es ha'Aseh?
Dear Benzi,
I want to correct part of what I wrote, and explain more. When Rashi says Akiras haLav he does not mean uprooting the Lav, he means that the Lav is (yes) carried out in full, which uproots the Torah's command (he could have said Kiyum haLav) (see Metivta edition, Biurei Rashi).
Now Rashi has to emphasize that at the time of erasing the possibility of doing the Asei- Bitul Asei- that is the real time of the Lav taking effect, Akiras haLav, and therefore if you give the Hasraa immediately before the Bitul Asei you should have a Hasraa which is Vadai- and Rashi asks maybe even R' Yochanan needs Hasraas Vadai and it should be given not before the forbidden act but before the canceling of the Asei! Rashi then answers that Hasraa has to be given before doing the forbidden act which the Torah commands not to do.
All the best, Reuven Weiner
So according to this interpretation isn't the Lashon of Akiras ha'Lav abit strange like you said it should really say she'Hu Kiyum ha'Lav?
Dear Benzi,
I understand your point. But it is important to Rashi to talk about the time of the Lav taking full final effect and he calls that "(the moment of) uprooting Torah" of the Lav.
All the best,
Reuven Weiner