I was talking today with a learned person about some topic or other, and he said that if someone has a safek whether he touched a mes, and a safek whether he's in rshus harabim or in rshus hayachid, then his tum'a is a sfek sfeka. I disagree, and would like your views on the subject. Thanks.
Michael Hamm :-)
Your question appears to be a Machlokes Tanaim in a Mishnah in Taharos, according to the Bartenura (Taharos 6:2, last Bartenura in Mishnah). However, other Rishonim contend his explanation of the Mishnah.
Be well,
-Mordecai