108b Rashi (that begins 8 lines down from top) cites the example of seller loss being tziri sharu (tied/untied money) instead of citing the first mentioned case of seller loss - and Rashi even explicitly says the reason is seller loss when explaining the cases where the seller has investment opportunity with the funds to buy better or closer land. Why does Rashi only cite the later cases as his example to demonstrate seller loss?
Daniel Gray, Toronto Canada
It seems to me that Rashi chooses the example of clearest seller loss. In the case of the tied/untied money the seller cannot see how much money the neighbor has sent, because it is wrapped up and sealed, and he is afraid to open the package in case the neighbor claims that the package contained more money than it actually did, as Rashi DH Hani writes. In contrast, the other buyer left his money open so there is no doubt how much money the seller is receiving.
So the scenario is one where the seller might actually receive less money than he was promised. This is a direct loss, and therefore when Rashi looked for an example of a loss which the seller is not required to suffer, he selected this case rather than the cases of investement opportunity, which do not represent direct loss of money.
Good Shabbos
Dovid Bloom