Yosef D. Kramer asked:
Why when it says Hash-m separate between lavim and yisroelim shouldn't it say shavet lavi becuase in the torah it says shavet lavi?
Yosef D. Kramer, Edison NJ, North America
The Kollel replies:
I think that when we say Levi'im this implies the whole of Shevet Levy. Also the Torah mentions Havdalah of Levy without the word Shevet in Bamidbar (8:14). The question arises, however, why does the Torah say Shevet in the verse in Devarim (10:8). The Ramban (ibid.) discusses this point.
Dov Freedman