Why does Rashbam (7 lines from bottom) indicate that the din of 1 or 2 days means two full days versus the standard phsat of Rashi in Chumash cited by Tosfos? Is there any opinion that two days is literal? Yes, one could shtoop into Rashbam that when he says two days he means the din of 1-2 days, however one explains that din, such as Rashi BUT he certainly doesn't sound like that's what he means.
DANIEL GRAY, TORONTOthe White Shul Daf
Sholom Rav,
My first thought was that "Yom O Yomayim" cannot possibly mean two days, because the Torah ought then to have written "Yomayim" alone. Consequently, the only P'shat is that of Rashi.
Then I saw that Targum Yonasan explains "Yom" as 'Me'es le'es' and Yomayim as the end of one day and the beginning of the next.
However, that cannot be what the Rashbam means, because why does he mention only 'Yomayim'and not 'Yom'.
My conclusion therefore is, that the Rashbam learns like Rashi, despite your objections.
Better to Kvetch a Rashbam than to Kvetch a Pasuk!
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler