Daf 50a
Why does rava rule in a case of shefai idis that the rule defaults to a baal chov b'beinonis. We see only a few lines later (m'shum d'lo masik ada'tei d'malveh...) that a baal chov should default to zinuris if lo sin'ol deles does not apply, which is certainly the case by nezikin? Thanks!
Moshe rubin, Brooklyn, ny
Rashi (DH Govah) explains that that even though Min ha?in the Nizak should receive Ziburis as you assert, the Rabannan were Mesakein that he gets Beinonis mi?nei Tikun ha?lam. Presumably this means so that the Nizak should not lose out.
Dov Freedman