on the bottomof 35a the gemara says that rebbe meir says that an esrog of maaser sheni is not kosher on yom tov. but the problem of esrog of maser sheni is achila or mamon which would be a problem of "lachem" which only applies on the first day. so why does rebbe meir say pasul all of yom tov instead of just the first day?
Ariel Morad, west hempstead, USA
1. In fact, there is no problem of Achilah for an Esrog of Ma'aser Sheni, because the Gemara is referring to holding the Esrog in Yerushalayim, where one is permitted to eat Ma'aser Sheni -- and it is actually a Mitzvah to do so, as the Torah states, "And you shall eat it there" (Devarim 14:26).
2. Rather, the problem with the Esrog of Ma'aser Sheni is a problem of Mamon, because according to Rebbi Meir fruit of Ma'aser Sheni belongs to "Gavoha." This means that belongs to the Beis ha'Mikdash and is not the property of any private individual. Since such an Esrog does not belong to the individual who holds it, it therefore is not "Lachem."
3. When the Gemara states that according to Rebbi Meir one cannot perform the Mitzvah with this Esrog on Yom Tov, it refers only to the first day of Yom Tov (or the first two days outside of Eretz Yisrael). In this case, the term "Yom Tov" used by the Gemara does not mean the entire Yom Tov of Sukos (including Chol ha'Mo'ed) but only the first two days. If the Gemara would have been referring to the entire festival of Sukos, it would not have needed to use the term "Yom Tov," but it would merely have written that a person does not fulfil his obligation with the Esrog of Ma'aser Sheni.
Kol Tuv,
Dovid Bloom