Hello again
In the Machlokes berween Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel, ... Beis Hillel held Lo Havei Hekdesh.
If so, why was Yiftach's Neder valid when he said he will be Makdish the 1st thing that comes out from his home.
He certainly did not have in mind to be Makdish his daughter.
Thank you
JG
You are asking an excellent question. In fact the Medrash Rabba (Bereishis 60:3) quotes a Mishnah in Temurah (27b) according to which the Neider would not be valid. The Medrash says that Rebbi Yochanan was of the opinion that Yiftach would have to pay the value of his daughter to Hekdesh, whereas Reish Lokish argued that Yiftach was completely Patur. Why then did Yiftach keep his Neider, and why did he need Pinchas to be Matir? The Medrash Tanchumah towards the end of Bechukosai (DH Davar Achair) explains that Yiftach's daughter indeed tried to persuade him that his Neider was not valid, and even went to the Sanhedrin, but they could not find a Heter. The Medrash explains that Hash-m caused that the Talmidei Chachamim would err in order to punish Yiftach for killing the men of Sevet Ephra'im. (See also Ramban va'Yikra 27:29 and Maharsha Chidushei Agados Ta'anis 4a.)
Dov Freedman