I'm curious. When the gemara is looking for something the Jews might have thought Moshe was refering to, why specifically are these the examples mentioned? After all, there are other mitzvot that chazal teach are equal to all other mitzvot (talmud Torah, yishuv Eretz Yisrael, brit milah...). Is there a specific reason why these examples used, or is it just meant as a sample since the gemara doesn't want to go through multiple such mitzvot? Thanks.
Judah Abraham, Highland Park, USA
I didn't find anybody that discusses this question. I don't think that there is a question on the choice of Avodah Zarah, as not only is it the most important principle to uphold but Chazal also address it as "Torah Kulah," which is the terminology used by the Gemara (as opposed to "equal to all the Mitzvos"). Regarding Tzitzis, it is possible that the Gemara chose this as the biggest leniency that Bnei Yisrael could have possibly thought of. After all, Bris Milah is painful, not everyone can live in Eretz Yisrael, and as we know from many sources the prime battle of the Yetzer Hara is convincing people not to learn Torah. The easiest leniency Klal Yisrael would be able to find would be that they will only keep the Mitzvah of Tzitzis. This could be why the Gemara chose Tzitzis.
All the best,
Yaakov Montrose