Your questions and answers on the daf ask the following question:
4(b) If Shimon appointed Reuven a Sheli'ach, then why might his Terumah not be valid?
Your answer is, as follows:
4(b) ... and the reason that his Terumah might not be valid is - because most people give a fiftieth as Terumah. Shimon however, assessed Reuven as belonging to the generous group who give a fortieth (and we now need to know whether his assessment was correct or not).
My question: It was my understanding that the gemarrah's concern is that the agent picked from yofos, rather than from beinonis. While certainly it could be that an agent might misread the principal and give 1/40th rather than 1/50th, that appears not to have been the issue in the gemarrah. Why then, do you focus on the amount, rather than the quality/grade of the fruits? Thank you for taking the time to respond.
Yisroel Hershkovitz, Ramat Beit Shemesh, Israel
You are absolutely correct. Not only does the Gemara talk about the Yofos and the Beinonios and not the issue of a fiftieth versus a fortieth, but Tosfos (DH "v'Im") points out that the Gemara in Kesuvos (99b) states that if the case was fiftieth versus a fortieth, the Terumah would be valid (see Tosfos for why there is a difference between the two cases).
Thanks for the correction,
Yaakov Montrose