Very straight forward only about someone who wants to be Podeh his sdei achuzah...The Gemara (not Rav Shimon) if not for the pasuk, there'd be a hava aminah that since he can be Goel from the moment he's makdish it if he has the means etc..
Is this assumption always true? We know that if by Yovel he wasn't Podeh it goes to the kohanim. Ok..so someone is makdish his sdei achuzah in the 35th year of a cycle- he has 15 years or it's gone.
My Havana was if he is not Podeh before Yovel it's gone. What if 5 years later the Beis Hamikdash sells it? They are allowed to.
In that instance the koneh in year 40 has no obligation to sell it back to the original owner...However the Sadeh is no longer hekdesh...what happens in Yovel?
A. Is the land considered a sdei achuzah to the new owner and the original loses out?
B. Does it return to hekdeish and go to the kohanim?
C. Being that the mikdash felt it would be beneficial to sell it...they're seen in a round about way as a real estate agency.... And in metzius the land is not hekdesh anymore and it reverts to a mocher sdei achuzaso so the original owner gets it back in Yovel....or D
None of the above...
I ask because at this juncture the Gemara does not seamed concerned with that aspect of makdish.
My hakaras haTov as always
Avrahom , United States
Dear Avraham,
If the owner is not Podeh before Yovel , then at Yovel its lost to him and it goes to the Kohanim.
If someone else is Podeh before Yovel- Machlokes. The Raavad holds that it's lost to the old owner, it stays by the redeemer until Yovel and then it goes to the Kohanim (there is no such thing as a new Sadeh Achuza). According to the Rambam the original owner can redeem it from the first redeemer and it stays by him at Yovel.(Rambam Hilchos Erchin 4:20)
All the best, Reuven Weiner