Rav and Shemuel disagree on shemen shel bedadim. Rashi says this is the same as the machlokes Rav Yehuda and Rav Shimon and references the last perek.
The Gemara continues with other disagreements on muktza between them and explicitly says that their machlokes is that of R"Y and R"S. Why does Rashi have to go to the last perek to prove that?
Gershon Dubin, Brooklyn NY
Rashi DH 'P'lugta de'R. Yehudah' refers to the last Perek. Why does he do that?
Because although the Gemara connects the Machlokes Rav and Shmuel with that of R. Yehudah and R. Shimon, it does not make any direct reference to what the latter are arguing about, in which case we have to refer to the the Sugya at the end of the Masechta anyway, which is more explicit. So Rashi does so straightaway.
R. Eliezer Chrysler