Thank you for all that you do! It says that a slave sold to a Nochri does not serve the son or daughter." (kiddushin 17b) I thought that a the slave immediately goes free because the jew was not allowed to sell him to a nochri?!
Aryeh Goldman, Kew Garden Hills, USA
Hi Aryeh,
Great question!
Your question is probably based on the fact that in Hebrew, the word 'Nimkar' is in the form (-Binyan) 'Nif'al', and usually indicates that someone else sold the man to a Gentile.
The thing is, that we find the form -'Nimkar' in countless instances, even when a person sells himself. It is true that a person is not allowed to sell himself to a gentile even if he is very financially strapped, but the Rambam (Hilchos Avadim, chapter 1) already ruled according to the Gemara that the sale is valid, and the Jew remains a slave, although he can redeem himself, and even his fellow Jews, have a mitzvah and must redeem him, even though he brought this situation unto himself.
In any case, if he remains a slave until the death of the master, he is not obliged to serve his children according to the laws of the Torah.
Kol Tuv,
AHaron Steiner