In Gevulin the braisa states tiku bnei aharon tiku and the same by teruah. In the Mikdash, the braisa states tiku hakohanim b'nei aharon tiku. Why the switch?
Thank you
avrohom adler, usa
The Girsa of the Munich and other manuscripts have the same text in the Gemara on 16b - which discusses the Mikdash - as appears in the Mishnah: Tik'u ha'Kohanim Tik'u, Hari'u Bnei Aharon Hari'u. (They also change the Girsa earlier on 16b - which discusses Gevulin - to Tik'u ha'Kohanim , rather than Tik'u Bnei Aharon , following the same pattern.) Accordingly, all of the Mishnayos and Beraisos are consistent.
The Gevuras Ari (in the Mishnah 15b) asks why the Mishnah refers to "Kohanim" by the Teki'os and to "Bnei Aharon" by the Teru'os. He has no answer, so he suggests that the Mishnah may simply be saying that either of the appellations may be used for either of the Shofar blowings.
Best wishes,
M. Kornfeld