R'Akiva Eiger asks on today's daf regarding how many items comprise an agudah: what is the proof from machlokes Rabbanan & R'yosi ? it is clear from the mishanah in poroh that if it was not bound at all, then it is kosher. Therefore this beraisa can't mean that it must have a minimum of 2 bedieved to comprise an agudah according to the rabannan ?

Have I got that right ? because if so, our gemarrah disagrees. It states that we do need a minimu of two acc to rabbanan at the beginning, and one at the end. True, it does not need to be bound at all, bedieved. BUT, it does need to start off with a minimum of two. Why ? Because we learn that number from the fact that it needs to be an agudah - a "bundle". (See bartenura there). So agudah tells us not only the fact it has to be tied (lechatchila), but also the minimum number to start off with (even bedieved). So agudah tells us we need two!

(This is slightly different to lulav, where we know what and how many we need independent of the limmud "lekichah", and the agudah there only tells us to tie them together. We even learn them from a different word (see tosfos here), presumably for that very reason. In lulav, it would be a qualifier to how we take it (tied), whereas in eizov it alls tells us what we take - a bundle which must be 2/3.)

Shloime Abraham, Manchester, England